Is it true that since sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Mathematics

1 answer:

slava [35]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use

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