Is it true that since sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Mathematics

1 answer:

slava [35]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use

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What is the correct order of the following numbers from least to greater?<br> 2/3, -0.6, 0.65, 4/5

ExtremeBDS [4]

We can either convert them to decimals or to fractions
if decimals
2/3=0.66666666
4/5=8/10=0.8
so the order is
-0.6, 0.65, 0.66, 0.8 or
-0.6, 0.65, 2/3, 4/5

if conver to fractions then
since -0.6 is negative, it is smallest, no need to convert
0.65=65 hundreths=65/100
2/3=66/99=prety close
4/5=8/10=80/100
order is
-0.6, 65/100, 66/99, 80/100 or
-0.6, 0.65, 2/3, 0.8

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Vesna [10]

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3 years ago

An angle measures 12° less than the measure of its complementary angle. What is the measure of each angle?

ale4655 [162]

Let ∠1 be x

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