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denpristay [2]
3 years ago
9

Is it true that since sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Mathematics
1 answer:
slava [35]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use

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