Answer:
Probability of getting at least one 2 equals 0.5177
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of at least one success is

where,
'p' is probability of success of 1 trail
'n' is number of events
We have probability of getting 2 is 1/6 thus 'p' = 1/6
Applying values we get

If u can’t read cause it is cut off, the top 10 is 10 and the bottom is -10.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since 2 of the 3 binomials are identical I would start the distribution there.
(1 + 4i)(1 + 4i) = 
I'm sure you have learned in class by now that i-squared is = to -1, so we can make that substitution:
1 + 8i + 16(-1) which simpifies to
1 + 8i - 16 which simplifies further to
-15 + 8i. Now we need to FOIL in the last binomial:
(-15 + 8i)(-4 + 4i) = 
Combine like terms to get

Again make the substitution of i-squared = -1:
60 - 92i + 32(-1) which simplifies to
60 - 92i - 32 which simpifies, finally, to a solution of:
28 - 92i
16 over 70 or 8 over 35 to simplify.