Answer:
c. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a project's contribution to the firm's value varies with the cost of capital.
Explanation:
NPV is Net Present Value of a project. It basically calculates the entire return on project. It is the discounted value of the net returns of the project. Its graph basically demonstrates the contribution of the project, and its difference in cost of capital.
It clearly assumes to add value to the company's contributions if it is more than 0, accordingly the returns are more than cost of capital if NPV is more than 0.
If Julieta and Eric deposit $845.59 per month for 12 years, they will accumulate $190,000.
Explanation:
N (# of periods) = 144 (12 years x 12 months)
I/Y (Interest per year) = 7%
PV (Present Value) = $0
FV (Future Value) = $190,000
<u>Results</u>:
Monthly Deposit = $845.59
Sum of all periodic payments = $121,765.07
Total Interest = $68,234.93
Thus, the monthly deposit is $845.59.
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The thing that would most likely be a principal immediate threat to this firm is<u> Rapidly advancing technology</u>
<h3>What is a Business?</h3>
This refers to the venture that is embarked on, primarily for the aim of making a profit.
Hence, we can see that The thing that would most likely be a principal immediate threat to this firm is<u> Rapidly advancing technology</u>
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This is because with advances in technology, there would be cheaper alternatives that are better to manufacture the clothing and she would be pushed out of business.
Read more about business here:
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Answer:
Explanation:
First, find the YTM of the bond (rD), you can do this with a financial calculator using the following inputs;
Maturity of the bond : N = 20
Annual coupon payment; PMT = 8%*1000 = 80
Face value; FV = 1000
Price of the bond ; PV = -1,050
then CPT I/Y = 7.51% (this is the Pretax cost of debt; the rD)
Next, find the cost of equity (rE) using CAPM;
CAPM; r = risk free + beta (Market risk premium)
rE = 0.0450 + 1.20(0.0550)
rE = 0.0450 + 0.066
= 0.111 or 11.1%
Next, WACC formula = wE*rE + wD*rD(1-tax) whereby;
w = weight of..
rD= pretax cost of debt
WACC = (0.65*0.111) + [0.35*0.0751(1-0.40) ]
WACC = 0.07215 + 0.015771
= 0.0879
Therefore, WACC = 8.79%
This scenario is an example of attempted "phishing"
Your answer is phishing