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deff fn [24]
3 years ago
7

Clancy is a bus driver who enjoys donuts and muffins. Suppose that the price of donuts increases. As a result, the purchasing po

wer of Clancy's paycheck is diminished. Therefore, he reduces his consumption of all goods, including donuts. This phenomenon is known as the effect
Business
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

INCOME EFFECT

Explanation:

Income Effect means change in real income/ purchasing power due to change in price, income staying same.

  • Price Increase reduces real income/ purchasing power, income staying same - because consumer can purchase less from same income.
  • Price decrease increases real income/ purchasing power, income staying same - because consumer can purchase more from same income.

Eg: Income, price of a consumer = Rs100, Rs10 respectively.

Real Income = Income/price = 100/10 = 10. Price fall to 8 increases purchasing power to 12.5 (100/8). Price rise to 12 decreases purchasing power to 8.3 (100/12).

Income Effect : stating - lower purchasing power at higher prices, reduces consumption of all goods and higher purchasing power at lower prices, increases consumption of all goods.

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In July, Lane Co. sells merchandise to Avery Co. on account. In August, Avery pays the balance in full. The entry that Lane will
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The entry that Lane will make to record the receipt of cash will include a credit to the: a. Accounts Receivable.

<h3>What is Accounts Receivable?</h3>

Accounts Receivable can be defined as the amount a company is expected to receive from their clients or customers for the goods and service they rendered to their clients.

Based on the information given the appropriate journal entry to record the transactions is:

Debit Cash

Credit Account receivable

(To record the receipt of cash)

Inconclusion the entry that Lane will make to record the receipt of cash will include a credit to the: a. Accounts Receivable.

Learn more about account receivable here:brainly.com/question/24848903

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Aside from advertising, how can monopolistically
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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
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Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

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