its like keeping the funds private and makeing sure no one knows alot about it
Answer:
Explanation:
Price is sum of:
1. Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years;
2. Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year based on growth at 5%.
Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years:
PV1 = 3*(1+0.30)*0.8929 = 3.90*0.8929 = $3.482
*0.8929 = 1/1.12
PV2 = 3.90*1.30*0.7972 = 5.07*0.7972 = $4.042
PV3 = 5.07*1.30*0.7118 = 6.591*0.7118 = $4.691
PV4 = 6.591*1.30*0.6355 = 8.5683*0.6355 = $5.445
Total = $17.661
Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year:
Market price of the share at the end = 5th year dividend/(Required rate of return - growth rate)
5th year dividend = $8.5683*(1+growth rate) = $8.5683*(1+0.05) = $9
Market price of the share at the end = $9/(0.12-0.05) = $128.57
Present value of $128.57 is 128.57*0.6355(present value interest factor for year 4) = $81.7
So the price of share is $17.661+$81.7 = $99.37
Answer:
$427,011.92
Explanation:
We use the present value formula i.e to be shown in the attached spreadsheet
Given that,
Future value = $0
Rate of interest = 7.5%
NPER = 15 years
PMT = $45,000
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
And, in type we write the 1 instead of 0
So, after solving this, the present value is $427,011.92
Answer:
This is a recessionary gap of $60 billion.
Simple multiplier = 1/ (1-.75) = 1/.25 = 4
The government would then have to increase its spending on goods and merchandise by total gap divided my simple multiplier.
$60 billion/ 4 = $15 billionTransfer multiplier - Each dollar of a Transfer payment will increase real GDP by Transfer Payment Multiplier
= MPC / (1-MPC) = 0.75 / (1-0.75) = 0.75/0.25 = $3
The government must increase spending on transfer payments by total gap divided by transfer payment multiplier = $60 billion / $3 = $20 billion
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