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brilliants [131]
3 years ago
9

What is 84 seconds to 8 seconds

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

8 out of 84: 90% decrease

200 out of 238: 16% decrease

Step-by-step explanation:

To find a percent decrease, you first subtract the end number by the initial number. This gives you the change.

ex. 84-8=76

Now you divide the change by the initial number. You'll get a decimal.

ex. 76/84=0.904...

Multiply the decimal times 100, or move the decimal to the right twice.

ex. 0.904... -> 90.4...

Now round to the nearest ones place

ex. 90.4 -> 90%

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3 years ago
Hi can someone please help me with this i will give you five stars!!
tino4ka555 [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's look at what we know. We know that...

P=2000

r=0.04 (Change 4% to a decimal)

t=7 (25 years minus 18 years equals 7)

n=1

Since we are compounding each year, we need to use this equation: P(1+\frac{r}{n} )^{nt}

Now just plug the numbers in: (Answer to #1:) 2000(1+\frac{0.04}{1} )^{(1*7)}

This equals 2631.86

When we round, this equals to $2,632. (Answer to #2).

3 0
2 years ago
Please help I wanna pass
LiRa [457]

Answer:

Everything is correct except for the second one and the ones you checkmarked.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
You roll 2 dice. If the sum of the dice is: 2, 3, 4 you win $20. If the sum is 5, 6, 7, 8 you win $10. If the sum is 9, 10, 11 y
Elis [28]

Answer:

1) The expected value of the "winnings" is $(-0.97\overline 2)

2) The variance for the "winnings" is $0.57966

3) The standard deviation for the "winnings" is$0.761354

4) The game is not a fair game because one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

Step-by-step explanation:

1) The probability of having a sum of 2 = 1/6×1/6 = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 3 = 1/6×1/6 = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 4 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6  = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 5 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 6 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 7 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 8 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 9 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6  = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 10 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 11 = 1/6×1/6  = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 12 = 1/6×1/6  = 1/36

The values are;

For 2, we have 1/36 × (20 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 3, we have 1/36 × (20 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 4, we have 1/18 × (20 - 5) = 0.8\overline 3

For 5, we have 1/18 ×  (10 - 5) = 0.2\overline 7

For 6, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 7, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 8, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 9, we have 1/18 × (-20 - 5) = -1.3\overline 8

For 10, we have 1/18 × (-20 - 5) = -1.3\overline 8

For 11, we have 1/36 × (-20 - 5) = -0.69\overline 4

For 12, we have 1/36 × (-25 - 5) = -0.69\overline 4

The expected value of the winnings is given as follows;

0.41\overline 6 + 0.41\overline 6 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.41\overline 6 + 0.41\overline 6 + -1.3\overline 8 -1.3 - 0.69\overline 4 - 0.69\overline 4 = -0.97\overline 2

Therefore, the expected value = $-0.97\overline 2, which is one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

2) Using Microsoft Excel, we have;

The variance for the "winnings", σ² = $0.57966

3) The standard deviation for the "winnings" = √σ² = √(0.57966) ≈ $0.761354

4) The game is not a fair game because one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

3 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2%20%5Ctimes%20%20%2B%205%20%3D%207" id="TexFormula1" title="2 \times + 5 = 7" alt="2 \times
Lera25 [3.4K]
2x + 5 =7
Subtracting 5 from both sides
= 2x +5-5 = 7-5
=2x = 2
= x = 2/2
=x = 1
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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