It’s the 31 hope this helps you
![\bf f(x)=y=2x+sin(x) \\\\\\ inverse\implies x=2y+sin(y)\leftarrow f^{-1}(x)\leftarrow g(x) \\\\\\ \textit{now, the "y" in the inverse, is really just g(x)} \\\\\\ \textit{so, we can write it as }x=2g(x)+sin[g(x)]\\\\ -----------------------------\\\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20f%28x%29%3Dy%3D2x%2Bsin%28x%29%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0Ainverse%5Cimplies%20x%3D2y%2Bsin%28y%29%5Cleftarrow%20f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%5Cleftarrow%20g%28x%29%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A%5Ctextit%7Bnow%2C%20the%20%22y%22%20in%20the%20inverse%2C%20is%20really%20just%20g%28x%29%7D%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A%5Ctextit%7Bso%2C%20we%20can%20write%20it%20as%20%7Dx%3D2g%28x%29%2Bsin%5Bg%28x%29%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A-----------------------------%5C%5C%5C%5C)
![\bf \textit{let's use implicit differentiation}\\\\ 1=2\cfrac{dg(x)}{dx}+cos[g(x)]\cdot \cfrac{dg(x)}{dx}\impliedby \textit{common factor} \\\\\\ 1=\cfrac{dg(x)}{dx}[2+cos[g(x)]]\implies \cfrac{1}{[2+cos[g(x)]]}=\cfrac{dg(x)}{dx}=g'(x)\\\\ -----------------------------\\\\ g'(2)=\cfrac{1}{2+cos[g(2)]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20%5Ctextit%7Blet%27s%20use%20implicit%20differentiation%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A1%3D2%5Ccfrac%7Bdg%28x%29%7D%7Bdx%7D%2Bcos%5Bg%28x%29%5D%5Ccdot%20%5Ccfrac%7Bdg%28x%29%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Cimpliedby%20%5Ctextit%7Bcommon%20factor%7D%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A1%3D%5Ccfrac%7Bdg%28x%29%7D%7Bdx%7D%5B2%2Bcos%5Bg%28x%29%5D%5D%5Cimplies%20%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B%5B2%2Bcos%5Bg%28x%29%5D%5D%7D%3D%5Ccfrac%7Bdg%28x%29%7D%7Bdx%7D%3Dg%27%28x%29%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A-----------------------------%5C%5C%5C%5C%0Ag%27%282%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%2Bcos%5Bg%282%29%5D%7D)
now, if we just knew what g(2) is, we'd be golden, however, we dunno
BUT, recall, g(x) is the inverse of f(x), meaning, all domain for f(x) is really the range of g(x) and, the range for f(x), is the domain for g(x)
for inverse expressions, the domain and range is the same as the original, just switched over
so, g(2) = some range value
that means if we use that value in f(x), f( some range value) = 2
so... in short, instead of getting the range from g(2), let's get the domain of f(x) IF the range is 2
thus 2 = 2x+sin(x)
![\bf 2=2x+sin(x)\implies 0=2x+sin(x)-2 \\\\\\ -----------------------------\\\\ g'(2)=\cfrac{1}{2+cos[g(2)]}\implies g'(2)=\cfrac{1}{2+cos[2x+sin(x)-2]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%202%3D2x%2Bsin%28x%29%5Cimplies%200%3D2x%2Bsin%28x%29-2%0A%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%0A-----------------------------%5C%5C%5C%5C%0Ag%27%282%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%2Bcos%5Bg%282%29%5D%7D%5Cimplies%20g%27%282%29%3D%5Ccfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%2Bcos%5B2x%2Bsin%28x%29-2%5D%7D)
hmmm I was looking for some constant value... but hmm, not sure there is one, so I think that'd be it
Answer:
x=3
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a proportional equation:
Given: x/9=9/27
Cross-multiply: 27x=81
Divide: x=3
So x=3
Answer: Jan now has 27 model airplanes.
Step-by-step explanation: The starting figure is 25 model airplanes and this year she has 32% more than she started with. We shall first find out how many that turned out to be. Let the current number of model airplanes be X.
X = 25 + 32%
[To calculate 32% of 25
25 x 32/100
(25 x 32)/100
800/100
8]
X = 25 + 8
X = 33
Now she has 33 model airplanes and she gave out 6 of these to her brother, then she finally has left with her, 33 minus 6 which equals 27.
Jan now has 27 model airplanes left
Since there are two black queens out of 52 cards, there is a 2/52 chance of drawing a black queen first. This is equivalent to a 1/26 chance.
Now that we have removed a black queen, there are 51 cards left in the deck. 26 of them are red because we only took away a black card. This means that there is a 26/51 of drawing a red card next.
In order to find the probability of both of these happening, we multiply the two together. 1/26 * 26/51 = 26/1326. This reduces to 1/51. So, there is a 1/51 chance of drawing a black queen, then a red card.
