The distribution of wealth on Earth is such that the richest 1% are wealthier than the rest of the 99% combined so this is <u>True</u>.
<h3>How is income distributed?</h3>
The top 1% of the human population are so wealthier that they own more than the combined assets of the other 99%.
This was confirmed in 2016 by Oxfam, and the scary part is that this trend is set to continue.
Find out more on income distribution at brainly.com/question/4993794
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This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
answer
<em>c </em><em> </em><em>i </em><em>don't </em><em>need </em><em>to </em><em>explain </em><em>I'd </em><em>take </em><em>c</em>
Answer:
Option C is the correct option.
Explanation:
As the rights and obligation of the antique rocking chair are been passed to third party, so the damage caused by the checque been bounced is the monetry consideration agreed between the party to the contract, McGraw and Tellis. So Tellis may recover money damages from McGraw. However there is a special condition that can allow Tellis recover his asset from Rio if the third party knew before purchase of this asset, that the checque paid to Tellis by McGraw was dishonoured but still he contracted with McGraw to acquire the antique rocking chair.
Overall the option C is the correct option with which the case scenario relates.
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