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Zielflug [23.3K]
3 years ago
14

How do you convert 50 miles per hour to miles per minute

Mathematics
2 answers:
andrew-mc [135]3 years ago
7 0

≈ 0.8333.... miles per minute

using the conversion : 1 hour = 60 minutes

then divide m/h by 60 for m/min

\frac{50}{60} ≈ 0.8333..... miles per minute


docker41 [41]3 years ago
5 0

So how many minutes are in an hour?

Divide 50 by that number and that's how you get the distance traveled by miles per minutes

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Whats 14 to the 2nd power
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Answer: 130.666

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the sum or difference. a. -121 2 + 41 2 b. -0.35 - (-0.25)
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason an infinite sum like 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + · · · can have a definite value is that one is really looking at the sequence of numbers

1

1 + 1/2 = 3/2

1 + 1/2 + 1/4 = 7/4

1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 = 15/8

etc.,

and this sequence of numbers (1, 3/2, 7/4, 15/8, . . . ) is converging to a limit. It is this limit which we call the "value" of the infinite sum.

How do we find this value?

If we assume it exists and just want to find what it is, let's call it S. Now

S = 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + · · ·

so, if we multiply it by 1/2, we get

(1/2) S = 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + · · ·

Now, if we subtract the second equation from the first, the 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, etc. all cancel, and we get S - (1/2)S = 1 which means S/2 = 1 and so S = 2.

This same technique can be used to find the sum of any "geometric series", that it, a series where each term is some number r times the previous term. If the first term is a, then the series is

S = a + a r + a r^2 + a r^3 + · · ·

so, multiplying both sides by r,

r S = a r + a r^2 + a r^3 + a r^4 + · · ·

and, subtracting the second equation from the first, you get S - r S = a which you can solve to get S = a/(1-r). Your example was the case a = 1, r = 1/2.

In using this technique, we have assumed that the infinite sum exists, then found the value. But we can also use it to tell whether the sum exists or not: if you look at the finite sum

S = a + a r + a r^2 + a r^3 + · · · + a r^n

then multiply by r to get

rS = a r + a r^2 + a r^3 + a r^4 + · · · + a r^(n+1)

and subtract the second from the first, the terms a r, a r^2, . . . , a r^n all cancel and you are left with S - r S = a - a r^(n+1), so

(IMAGE)

As long as |r| < 1, the term r^(n+1) will go to zero as n goes to infinity, so the finite sum S will approach a / (1-r) as n goes to infinity. Thus the value of the infinite sum is a / (1-r), and this also proves that the infinite sum exists, as long as |r| < 1.

In your example, the finite sums were

1 = 2 - 1/1

3/2 = 2 - 1/2

7/4 = 2 - 1/4

15/8 = 2 - 1/8

and so on; the nth finite sum is 2 - 1/2^n. This converges to 2 as n goes to infinity, so 2 is the value of the infinite sum.

8 0
3 years ago
Help I need help please
s344n2d4d5 [400]

a) Negative correlation

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b) Positive correlation

Positive correlation corresponds to points that move up as you go from left to right on the scatter plot.

c) No correlation

Scattered points on the scatter plot make no relationship.

4 0
3 years ago
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