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Serga [27]
3 years ago
8

The cost to a store for an MP3 player is $60. The selling price is $105. A classmate says that the markup is 175% because $105$6

0=1.75. Is your classmate correct? Explain how your arrived at your answer. should be in the numerator and $60 should be in the denominator. So, the percent of markup is %. Question 2 Therefore, your classmate correct.
Mathematics
1 answer:
blsea [12.9K]3 years ago
5 0

It is given that the cost price of the MP3 player is $60 and the selling price is $105.

The markup is given by the formula:

Markup = \frac{S.P.}{C.P.} (100)

= \frac{105}{60} (100)

= 1.75 × 100

= 175%

Yes, the classmate is correct.

Hence, the markup is 175% and the classmate is correct.

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3 years ago
Im not sure how to do this or what function to use SIN, COS, or TAN but if you could walk me through it that would be so so so a
Elanso [62]

Answer: 3.8

Step-by-step explanation:first, you need to figure out what side you’re looking for. Side AC is opposite of the angle you’re given. They also give you length of side AB which is 4. That is the hypotenuse (side directly across from right angle). So, you have the hypotenuse, and need the find the opposite side measure. Which option uses opposite and hypotenuse? That’s Sin. So, you would do: sin70 = ? / 4.

sin (of given angle)= opposite / hypotenuse.

Sin (70 degrees) = ? / 4

Then you solve for “?”

Type sin70 into your calculator, then multiply both sides by 4 to get “?” by itself. You should get 3.758770483, which rounds to 3.8

5 0
2 years ago
Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of
Naddik [55]

Answer:

There is a 27.62% probability that exactly 2 of the U.S. residents have blood type AB.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each U.S. resident, there are only two outcomes possible. Either they have blood type AB, or they do not. This means that we can solve this problem using binomial probability distribution concepts.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

50 U.S residents are sampled, so n = 50

4% of the U.S population has blood type AB, so p = 0.04.

What is the probability that exactly 2 of the U.S. residents have blood type AB?

This is P(X = 2). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{50,2}.(0.04)^{2}.(0.96)^{48} = 0.2762

There is a 27.62% probability that exactly 2 of the U.S. residents have blood type AB.

5 0
3 years ago
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Feliz [49]

a+b+c divided by 2 :))))

7 0
3 years ago
Pls answer and thanks!!
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

Problem:

Solve 3x−y=6;y=x−4

Steps:

I will try to solve your system of equations.

y=x−4;3x−y=6

Step: Solvey=x−4for y:

Step: Substitutex−4foryin3x−y=6:

3x−y=6

3x−(x−4)=6

2x+4=6(Simplify both sides of the equation)

2x+4+−4=6+−4(Add -4 to both sides)

2x=2

2x

2

=

2

2

(Divide both sides by 2)

x=1

Step: Substitute1forxiny=x−4:

y=x−4

y=1−4

y=−3(Simplify both sides of the equation)

Answer:

y=−3 and x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped you

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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