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sergey [27]
3 years ago
5

The Up and Coming Corporation's common stock has a beta of 0.92. If the risk-free rate is 0.01 and the expected return on the ma

rket is 0.06, what is the company's cost of equity capital?
Business
1 answer:
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The company's cost of equity capital is 0.056

Explanation:

cost of equity capital

= risk free rate + beta*(expected return on market - risk free rate)

= 0.01 + 0.92*(0.06 - 0.01)

= 0.056

Therefore, The company's cost of equity capital is 0.056

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The 2016 balance sheet of Whole Foods Market reports operating assets of $5,489 million, operating liabilities of $2,066 million
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

Correct option is E.

Explanation:

There is not enough information to calculate the amount.

Net operating asset= Operating Assets  - Operating Liabilities

=$5489 Million - $2066 Million

=$3423 Million

Hence Average net operating assets can't be calculated by given information.

8 0
3 years ago
Blumen Textiles Corporation began April with a budget for 22,000 hours of production in the Weaving Department. The department h
tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

A. 1300 Favorable

B. $7,200 UnFavorable

Explanation:

A. Calculation to determine the variable factory overhead controllable variance

First step is to calculate the Budgeted rate of variable overhead

Budgeted rate of variable overhead = $50,600/22,000

Budgeted rate of variable overhead= $2.3per hour

Second step is to calculate the Standard variable overhead for actual production

Standard variable overhead for actual production = 23,000 x $2.3

Standard variable overhead for actual production = $52,900

Now let calculate the Variable factory overhead controllable variance using this formula

Variable factory overhead controllable variance = Standard variable overhead - Actual variable overhead

Let plug in the formula

Variable factory overhead controllable variance= $52,900 - ($86,400 - 34,800)

Variable factory overhead controllable variance= 1300 Favorable

Therefore Variable factory overhead controllable variance is 1300 Favorable

B. Calculation to determine the fixed factory overhead volume variance.

First step is to calculate the Predetermined fixed overhead rate using this formula

Predetermined fixed overhead rate = 34,800/29,000

Predetermined fixed overhead rate = $1.20 per hour

Second step is to calculate the Fixed overhead applied

Using this formula

Fixed overhead applied = Standard hours x Standard rate

Let plug in the formula

Fixed overhead applied= 23,000 x $1.20

Fixed overhead applied= $27,600

Now let calculate the Fixed overhead volume variance using this formula

Fixed overhead volume variance = Fixed overhead applied - Budgeted fixed overhead

Let plug in the formula

Fixed overhead volume variance= $27,600 - 34,800

Fixed overhead volume variance= $7,200 UnFavorable

Therefore The Fixed overhead volume variance is $7,200 UnFavorable

5 0
3 years ago
A coffee manufacturer uses Colombian and Brazilian coffee beans to produce two blends, robust and mild. A pound of the robust bl
tester [92]

Answer:

•8.74 pounds of robust blend

• 1.25 pounds of mild blend

Explanation:

We are given:

•12 ounces, 6 ounces of mild blend Colombian beans

•4 ounces, 10 ounces of mild blend Brazilian beans.

From the question, we get the following equations:

1) Colombian: 12x + 6y = 1800

2) Brazilian: 4x + 10y = 760

Let's multiply the Brazilian equation by 3, we now have:

Colombian: 12x + 6y = 1800

Brazilian : 12x + 30y = 2280

Solving simultaneously, we have:

-24y = - 480

Therefore,

y = -480/-24

y= 20 oz

y = 20 oz ( divide by 16 to convert to pounds) = 1.25 pounds

Let's solve for x from Brazilian equation:

4x + 10y = 760

Therefore, since y = 20, we have:

4x + 10(20) = 760

= 4x + 200 = 760

= 4x = 760 - 200

= 4x = 560

Therefore

x = 560/4

x = 140

140 oz = 8.74 pounds

Therefore, they should make;

8.74 pounds of robust blend and 1.25 pounds of mild blend.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January​ 1, 2017,​ Sophie's Sunlounge owned 4 tanning beds valued at​ $20,000. During​ 2017, Sophie's bought 3 new beds at a
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

Net Investment = 4,000

Explanation:

Gross Investment = 10,000

Depreciation = Market Value - Book value

Depreciation =26,000 - 20,000

Depreciation = 6,000

Net Investment = Gross Investment - Depreciation

Net Investment = 10,000 - 6,000

Net Investment = 4,000

NOTE: Gross investment for 2017 will be the 3 new beds that Sophie bought during 2017 at a total cost of 10,000. To calculate Net investment we should calculate depreciation first by deducting book value from market value.

4 0
3 years ago
Explain the difference between the unadjusted and the adjusted trial balance. Multiple choice question. The adjusted trial balan
gladu [14]

Answer:

The adjusted trial balance is prepared after adjusting entries have been recorded and posted.

Explanation:

Only the adjusted trial balance is accurate and more up to date than an unadjusted trial balance and must be used to prepare financial statements.

The adjusted arise from the end of reporting period adjustment such as inventory valuation and errors that might have been identified during the reporting period.

3 0
4 years ago
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