4(x 2)=48
4x+8=48
4x=40
x=10
It's annuity problem
To solve your question use the formula of the present value of annuity ordinary which is
Pv=pmt [(1-(1+r)^(-n))÷r]
Pv present value?
PMT yearly payments 18000
R interest rate 0.09
N time 20 years
So
Pv=18,000×((1−(1+0.09)^(−20))÷(0.09))
pv=164,313.82
Answer:
110
Step-by-step explanation:
You can see that the other terms are between 20 and 40, but 110 is a whole 75 off of the next greatest number. That makes it an outlier
