Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the overhead rate for each activity is as follows;
Overhead rate is
= Respective overhead cost ÷ Respective activity
For Machine setups
= ($202,800 ÷ 2,600 setups)
= $78 per setup
For Machining
= ($364,500 ÷ 24,300 machine hours)
= $15 per machine hour
For Inspection
= ($88,000 ÷ 1,600 inspections)
= $55 per inspection
In this way it is calculated
Answer:
The correct answer would be E, Taking Action.
Explanation:
You have received your poor grades in Spanish over the last two semester. Now it is the time to take action and improve your grades. You will have to take proper actions and measures in order to improve your grades in the coming semesters. So you will either have to join an extra coaching or ask your friends to teach you the language if they are getting excellent marks. You will have to work hard. You will have to give more time to study and understand the language. These are the actions that you would have to take.
Answer:
5.85%
Explanation:
Suppose the real risk-free rate is 3.50%, the average future inflation rate is 2.25%, and a maturity premium of 0.10% per year to maturity applies, i.e., MRP = 0.10%(t), where t is the years to maturity. What rate of return would you expect on a 1-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is NOT valid? Disregard cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average.
a. 5.75%
B. 5.85%
c. 5.95%
d. 6.05%
e. 6.15%
r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP
r = 3.50% + 2.25% + 0 + 0 + .10% = 5.85%
Answer: $45 million
Explanation:
Cash Contributions during the year can be calculated by;
= Ending Plan assets + Retiree benefits - Opening plan assets - Actual return
Actual return
= Actual return on plan assets * Opening plan assets
= 13% * 500
= 65
Cash contributions = 530 + 80 - 500 - 65
= $45 million
Answer:
D) $45,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount which is included in the current liability section is shown below:
= Account payable balance + bonds payable - discount on bonds payable + dividend payable
= $15,000 + $25,000 - $3,000 + $8,000
= $45,000
The current liability is that liability which is arise for one year. Since, the notes payable is a long term liabilities so we do not consider in the computation part.
