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Nata [24]
3 years ago
11

Is overshooting (in theory and in practice) consistent with purchasing power parity? Consider the reasons for the usefulness of

PPP in the short run versus the long run and the assumption we’ve used in the asset approach (in the short run versus the long run). How does overshooting help to resolve the empirical behavior of exchange rates in the short run versus the long run?
Business
1 answer:
Ludmilka [50]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1. Yes, overshooting is consistent with PPP. Investors forecast the expected exchange rate based on the theory of PPP. When there is some change in the market, the investors know the exchange rate will change to equate relative prices in the long run. This is why we observe overshooting in the short run. The investors incorporate this information into their short-run forecasts.

2. Exchange rates are volatile in the short run. The theory's implication that there is exchange rate overshooting (in response to permanent shocks) is one explanation for short-run volatility in

exchange rates.

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A firm incurs $35,000,000 of actual OH costs. It has a PDOH rate of $450 per machine hour and 100,000 machine hours were actuall
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Answer:

c.  Debit: Overhead Control $10,000,000  

Credit: Cost of Goods Sold $10,000,000

Explanation:

The journal entry to close the overhead account is presented below:

Overhead Control A/c Dr $10,000,000

       To Cost of Goods Sold A/c  $10,000,000

(Being the overhead account is closed)

The computation is shown below:

= Applied overhead - actual overhead

where,

Applied overhead equal to

= $450 × 100,000 machine hours

= $45,000,000

And, the actual overhead is $35,000,000

So, the amount would be

= $45,000,000 - $35,000,000

= $10,000,000

Since the applied overhead is greater than the actual overhead, so we debited the overhead control account and credited the cost of goods sold account

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The publisher is __________. The publishing date is __________. The author is __________.
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Answer:

Houghton Mifflin Company . . . 2002 . . . Robert Overholtzer

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3 years ago
Kathleen Cole Inc. acquired the following assets in January of 2012. Equipment, estimated service life, 5 years; salvage value,
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Answer:

1. Debit : Equipment Depreciation : $102000

Credit : Equipment Accumulated Depreciation : $102000

2. Debit : Building Depreciation account : $16857

Credit : Building Accumulated Depreciation : $16857

Explanation:

A change in accounting estimate occurs when there is new information that surfaces, affecting the initial situation. It can affect the carrying amount of an asset or liability as well as alter the accounting for existing and future assets or liabilities.

1. The equipment has a cost of $525000 and its depreciation was changed to using the straight line method after 3 years of use. Straight- line depreciation per year:

(Cost of asset - salvage value) / number of useful years.

The cost of asset and the number of useful years left would have to be found since the machine already depreciated using the sum-of-years-digits.

Number of useful years left : 5 - 3 = 2

Accumulated depreciation is required to find what the asset costs at the beginning of 2015.

Depreciation using sum-of-years-digits:

Sum-of-years-digits is an accelerated form of depreciation based on the assumption that an asset’s productivity reduces with time.

(Cost - Salvage value) x (remaining useful life of asset / sum of years digits)

Sum-of-years-digits = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15

Depreciation for 2012 :

($525000 - $15000) / (5/15) = $170000

Depreciation for 2013 :

($525000 - $15000) / (4/15) = $136000

Depreciation for 2014 :

($525000 - $15000) / (3/15) = $102000

Total depreciation: $102000 + $136000 + $170000 = $408000

Cost of asset at Jan 2015 = $525000 - $408000 = $117000

Thus, depreciation expense for 2015 = ($117000 - $15000) / 2 = $51000

Debit : Equipment Depreciation : $51000

Credit : Equipment Accumulated Depreciation : $51000

2. The building has a cost of $693000. It is depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation. Hence, the depreciation expense is the same annually throughout the life of the asset.

Annual depreciation = (Cost of asset - salvage value) / number of useful years

Useful number of years was initially 30 years, later in 2015, it was changed to 40 years.

In order to find the depreciation for 2015, we need to find the cost of asset at the beginning of 2015 and the estimated useful life years left.

Estimated useful life years left : 40 - 3 = 37 years

Cost of asset :

To find this, we require the accumulated depreciation.

Depreciation for one year:

(693000 - 0) / 30 = $23100

$23100 x 3 = $69300 for 3 years

Cost of asset at the beginning of 2015 :

693000 - $69300 = $623700

This would mean that the depreciation expense for 2015 is:

($623700) / 37 = $16857

Debit : Building Depreciation account : $16857

Credit : Building Accumulated Depreciation : $16857

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