Since the standard deviation is not given, we assume the process is a Poisson process, with mean 12000 miles.
From Poisson distribution tables, we see that with a value of lambda(mean)=12000, the lower tail probability for x=12140 miles is 0.9000105, which means that the 90 percentile is 12140 miles.
The lower-tail probability of 9000 miles is 6.2*10^(-181) which is essentially zero.
NOTE: if the problem were modelled with a normal distribution, the probabilities would be completely different.
Answer:
A. -0.875
Step-by-step explanation:
Find where the points are located
A=-4.25
B=2.5
Add the points
-4.25+2.5=-1.75
-1.75/2=-0.875
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards
We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.
16 + 16 = 32
= 32 x 2 =
50 x 2
= 64 : 2 = 32 %
100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.
I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.
Answer:
Choice D
Step-by-step explanation:
You would add up all the numbers then insert the total into the denominator. Lastly you would look at the amount of jelly treats then insert it into the numerator.