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Natasha_Volkova [10]
4 years ago
5

CWN Company uses a job order costing system and last period incurred $89,000 of actual overhead and $100,000 of direct labor. CW

N estimates that its overhead next period will be $66,000. It also expects to incur $100,000 of direct labor. If CWN bases applied overhead on direct labor cost, its predetermined overhead rate for the next period should be:
Business
1 answer:
swat324 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Predetermined overhead rate for the next period is $0.66 per $1 of labor cost

Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate is calculated by dividing the Expected overhead by the Expected level of activity on which the overhead is applied. It is a rate at which the overhead is applied to a product / project/ department.

Predetermined overhead rate = Expected overhead / Expected activity

Predetermined overhead rate = Expected overhead / Expected direct labor cost

Predetermined overhead rate = $66,000 / $100,000

Predetermined overhead rate = $0.66 per $1 of labor cost

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Increased professionalism in police forces has been made possible by two-way radios, telephones, and automobiles. in what way ha
anzhelika [568]
Answer:  
One way in which society has not benefited from the increasing police professionalism is because of the increase, community relations between civilians and police suffered despite the removal of political involvement.
8 0
3 years ago
Shale Oil Corporation combines its assets and debts with those of Tierra Frakking Company to form Unified Resources, Inc. Shale
andriy [413]

Answer:

1. c. a consolidation

2. a. all of Shale's and Tierra's assets

3. c. all of Shale's and Tierra's debts

Explanation:

1. When multiple companies join up together to form a new company, this is called a Consolidation which is what Shale Shale Oil Corporation and Tierra Frakking Company did when they formed Unified Resources, Inc.

2. In a Consolidation, the previously separate companies move in with all their debt and assets to form the new company. As such, Unified Resources acquires all of Shale's and Tierra's assets.

3. As previously stated, in a Consolidation, the previously separate companies move in with all their debt and assets to form the new company. As such, Unified Resources assumes all of Shale's and Tierra's debts as well.

7 0
3 years ago
he condensed balance sheet and income statement for Marjoram Company are presented below. MARJORAM COMPANY Balance Sheet At Dece
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

current ratio  for MARJORAM  = Current asset / current liabilities

                                                   =  $173,000/ $108,400

                                                    =  1.59

Explanation:

step 1 :calculate the total current asset of the company which is calculated below.

current asset

Cash                         $19,000

Note Receivable         35,000

Account Receivable    48,400

Inventory                    <u>  70,600</u>

Total                         <u> 173,000</u>

Note receivable is included in the current asset because its due date is less than 12 months.

step 2 : divide the current asset by the current liabilites in order to determine the current ratio

7 0
3 years ago
If the Ricardian equivalence theorem LOADING... is not​ relevant, then an​ income-tax-rate cut A. will result in a multiple time
LenKa [72]

Answer:

The correct answer is D. will result in a multiple times higher decrease in equilibrium real GDP in the short​ run; however, a​ tax-rate reduction will increase the​ automatic-stabilizer properties of the tax​ system, so equilibrium real GDP would be less stable.

Explanation:

Ricardian Equivalence is an economic theory that suggests that when a government increases expenses financed with debt to try to stimulate demand, demand does not really undergo any change.

This is because increases in the public deficit will lead to higher taxes in the future. To keep their consumption pattern stable, taxpayers will reduce consumption and increase their savings in order to offset the cost of this future tax increase.

If taxpayers reduce their consumption and increase their savings by the same amount as the debt to be returned by the government, there is no effect on aggregate demand.

The fundamental concept of Ricardian equivalence is that it does not matter which method the government chooses to increase spending, whether by issuing public debt or through taxes (applying an expansive fiscal policy), the result will be the same and demand will remain unchanged.

6 0
3 years ago
36. Comparing Cash Flow Streams [LO1] You've just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They've offere
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

the second option

Explanation:

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

first option

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 - $85,000

1 = 7

PV = $153,681.54

Second option

Cash flow in year 0 = $20,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2- $74,000

I = 7

PV =  $153,793.34

the pv of the second payment is higher than the first so the seconf would be choosen

To find the PV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

153,681.54

7 0
3 years ago
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