1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
GenaCL600 [577]
3 years ago
12

0.72÷−0.9= solve problem

Mathematics
2 answers:
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]3 years ago
7 0
\sf\frac{.72}{-.9}=-\frac{.72}{.9}=-.8\\\\{\boxed{\sf -.8}
defon3 years ago
6 0
If you would like to solve 0.72 / (-0.9), you can do this using the following steps:

0.72 / (-0.9) = - 0.72 / 0.9 = - 0.8

The correct result would be - 0.8.
You might be interested in
Find the measure of angle x in the figure below: A.) 35° B.) 48° C.) 69° D.) 78°
prisoha [69]

Answer:

x = 48

Step-by-step explanation:

First find y

52+y+59 = 180 since they from a straight line

y = 180-59-52

y = 69

Then we know the angles of a triangle add to 180

x+y+63 = 180

x+69+63 = 180

x = 180-69-63

x =48

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 35% of 60 answer
Alekssandra [29.7K]

" 35% " means " 0.35 ".

" of " in math almost always means " times ".

So the problem is:        (0.35) x (60)

You can easily do that with a pencil or a calculator.
 
3 0
3 years ago
1. What is the solution for<br> the inequality 4x &lt; 12?
DedPeter [7]

。☆✼★ ━━━━━━━━━━━━━━  ☾  

4x < 12

Divide both sides by 4:

x < 12/4

x < 3

That is your solution ^^

Have A Nice Day ❤    

Stay Brainly! ヅ    

- Ally ✧    

。☆✼★ ━━━━━━━━━━━━━━  ☾

8 0
4 years ago
A cell phone company charges $10/month plus $0.75 per text message and $1 per minute of talk. Data is unlimited. Cameron send 45
rewona [7]
The answer is A because you multiply the 0.75 by 450 and multiply the 1 and 60 then add the two answers together and you have your answer
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from M
blondinia [14]

Answer:

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Amber plans to cook a turkey and macaroni and cheese for a special dinner. Since
    7·1 answer
  • How many thirds are in 5 4/6
    7·2 answers
  • What are the pattern conbination between these number 18 48 88 128 178 38 68
    13·1 answer
  • 17/18 -3/7= need answer please
    13·1 answer
  • Find the standard equation of a sphere that has diameter with the end points given below. (3,-2,4) (7,12,4)
    9·1 answer
  • Plz help, will mark brainliest!
    15·2 answers
  • The equation of a line is y=-2x+12. What is the equation of a line parallel to this line?
    8·1 answer
  • What is the slope of the line that passes through the points (1,-5) and (3,5)?
    10·1 answer
  • HELPP PLEASE DUE I N 1 HOURRR
    7·2 answers
  • I will mark you if you help me so please help me
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!