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Mila [183]
3 years ago
10

consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from M

achine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%. What is the probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachin?
Mathematics
1 answer:
blondinia [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

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