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3 years ago

14

The answer should be a fraction

2 answers:

schepotkina [342]3 years ago

6 0

<span>Hello! : )

The correct answer to your question is...</span> $2^{3} y^{5}$ <span>

Evidence:
Step 1: Simplify </span> $y^{2}$ <span>/5</span><span>

( 40 multiplied by</span> $y^{2}$ /5 multiplied by $y^{3}$ <span> )
</span>

Step 2: $y^{2}$ <span> multiplied by </span> $^{3}$ <span> = y(2 + 3) = </span> $y^{5}$

So the correct answer is... $2^{3} y^{5}$

I hope this helped! : )
Please Rate & Thank!
Please mark as Brainliest!

Have a wonderful day! : )

Vedmedyk [2.9K]3 years ago

5 0

Ok so 40y2/50y3.... you are going to cancel out the common factor (10)

4y2/5y3..
now apply the exponent rule, which is : xa /xb = 1/ xb-a

so...y2/y3 = 1/ y3 - 2 = 1/y

ANSWER : 4/5y

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What is 3/4 x = 6 what is the value of x

olasank [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4x = 6 Multiply both sides by 4/3

4/3 * 3/4 x = 6*4/3 Combine

x = 6 * 4/3

x = 6 * 4/3

x = 24/3

x = 8

6 0

4 years ago

Meg received a 3% increase in pay, She was making $690/week

jekas [21]

Answer:

$20.70 increase per week!

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 690 * 0.03 (aka 3%) to get 20.7 which equals $20.70

if you want to know how much she made the next week altogether, add 690 + 20.70 to get $710.70!

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Two people share £350 in the ratio 1 : 6.<br><br><br>Calculate each share.

EleoNora [17]

Answer:

£50 and £300

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum the parts of the ratio 1 + 6 = 7 parts

Divide the amount by 7 to find the value of one part of the ratio

£350 ÷ 7 = £50 ← value of 1 part of ratio

Hence

1 person receives £50

the other person receives 6 × £50 = £300

6 0

3 years ago

a random sample of 4 claims are selected from a lot of 12 that has 3 nonconforming units. using the hypergeometric distribution

Sloan [31]

Answer:

The probability that the sample will contain exactly 0 nonconforming units is P=0.25.

The probability that the sample will contain exactly 1 nonconforming units is P=0.51.

.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a sample of size n=4, taken out of a lot of N=12 units, where K=3 are non-conforming units.

We can write the probability mass function as:

$P(x=k)=\frac{\binom{K}{k}\binom{N-K}{n-k}}{\binom{N}{n}}$

where k is the number of non-conforming units on the sample of n=4.

We can calculate the probability of getting no non-conforming units (k=0) as:

$P(x=0)=\frac{\binom{3}{0}\binom{9}{4}}{\binom{12}{4}}=\frac{1*126}{495}=\frac{126}{495} = 0.25$

We can calculate the probability of getting one non-conforming units (k=1) as:

$P(x=1)=\frac{\binom{3}{1}\binom{9}{3}}{\binom{12}{4}}=\frac{3*84}{495}=\frac{252}{495} = 0.51$

5 0

4 years ago

Given the original number n. Multiply the number by 9. Add 99. Divide this sum by 9. Subtract the original number, n, from the q

tangare [24]

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

Given the original number n.

$\large \boxed{n}$

Multiply the number by 9.

$\large \boxed{9n}$

Add 99.

$\large \boxed{9n+99}$

Divide this sum by 9.

$\large \boxed{\dfrac{9n+99}{9}=n+11}$

Subtract the original number, n, from the quotient.

$\large \boxed{n+11-n=11}$

Thank you.

4 0

3 years ago