The difference of 6 times a number y and 3 is 5 more than 2 times y

I Need The Answer!!! Geometry Is Hard!!!!

Elenna [48]

Answer:

QRS.

Step-by-step explanation:

The order of the letters must reflect the equal angles and their order.

So Q corresponds to L, R corresponds to M and S corresponds to N

So the answer is QRS.

5 0

4 years ago

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The mass of rileys math book is 4,458 grams. What is the mass of 4 math books in kilogram

Bumek [7]

Your answer would be 17.832

8 0

3 years ago

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What’s the solution of y= 3x-1 and y= 3x+4

julia-pushkina [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

solution ? you mean where both lines cross each other ?

these are 2 parallel lines (same slope, but different y-intercept), so they never cross each other.

there is no solution.

formally :

3x - 1 = 3x + 4

-1 = 4

this is wrong. therefore there is no solution.

3 0

3 years ago

HELP WITH MATH ASAP

nata0808 [166]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

3.- In a certain desert region the average number of persons who become seriously ill each year from eating a certain poisonous

Naily [24]

Answer:

$P(X\geq 5)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^0}{0!}=0.001662$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^1}{1!}=0.010634$

$P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^2}{2!}=0.034029$

$P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^3}{3!}=0.072595$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^4}{4!}=0.116151$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) =0.76493$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

Let X the random variable that represent the number of people that will become sereiosly ill in two years. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this case the value for $\lambda$ would be:

$\lambda = 3.2 \frac{ills}{year} *2 years = 6.4$

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 5)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^0}{0!}=0.001662$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^1}{1!}=0.010634$

$P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^2}{2!}=0.034029$

$P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^3}{3!}=0.072595$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^4}{4!}=0.116151$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) =0.76493$

7 0

3 years ago

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