Answer:
$4,110 and 12.08%
Explanation:
The computation of the dollar return and the percent return is shown below:
Dollar Return = (Ending Value − Beginning Value) + Income earned
where,
Ending value is
= $126.69 × 300 shares
= $38,007
Beginning value is
= $113.39 × 300 shares
= $34,017
And, the income earned is
= Dividend per share paid × number of shares owed
= $0.40 × 300 shares
= $120
So, the dollar return is
= $38,007 - $34,017 + $120
= $4,110
And, the percentage return is
= (Dollar return ÷ Beginning value) × 100
= ($4,110 ÷ $34,017) × 100
= 12.08%
Answer:
$ 4242.76
Explanation:
Annual payment = rP / (1 - ( 1 + r)^-n)
r = rate = 9.5%
P = the amount borrowed = $ 21000
n = number of years
Annual payment = 0.095 ($ 21 000) / ( 1 - (1 + 0.095)⁻⁷ ) = $ 4242.76
Answer:
PV= $2,749,494
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $200,000
Number of periods= 25
Interest rate= 5.25%
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {200,000* [(1.0525^25) - 1]} / 0.0525
FV= $9,881,102.14
<u>Now, the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 9,881,102.14 / (1.0525^25)
PV= $2,749,494
Answer:
$48 million
Explanation:
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value including goodwill and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value including goodwill - fair value
= $450 million - $402 million
= $48 million
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
B. The value of the next most valuable opportunity.
Explanation:
The opportunity cost of an investment is the value of the next most valuable opportunity.
