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storchak [24]
3 years ago
14

How can you write any rate as a unit rate?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Anni [7]3 years ago
6 0
The problem must have two terms, and you must be asked to determine how much of one term exists per unit of the other term. Rewrite the data as a division problem. The first term in the problem—the amount you are trying to calculate per unit—will become the numerator (top number). The second term—the unit—will become the denominator (bottom number). Divide both values by the denominator. To find the unit rate, simply solve the newly written division problem. Doing so will reduce the denominator to "1." Write the solution. You should now have your final answer ready.
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:When rates are expressed as a quantity of 1, such as 2 feet per second or 5 miles per hour, they are called unit rates. If you have a multiple-unit rate such as 120 students for every 3 buses, and want to find the single-unit rate, write a ratio equal to the multiple-unit rate with 1 as the second term.



Step-by-step explanation:


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(x+14)-(8-2x) equivalent to
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Determine the probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl assuming boys and girls are equally likely
Fittoniya [83]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5 = 50% probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl.

For each child, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is a boy, or it is a girl. The probability of a child being a boy or being a girl is independent of any other child, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • Two children, hence n = 2.
  • Equally as likely to be a boy or a girl, hence p = 0.5.

The probability of one of each is P(X = 1), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{2,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{1} = 0.5

0.5 = 50% probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

3 0
2 years ago
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