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kirza4 [7]
3 years ago
15

The difference between the price at which a dealer is willing to buy and the price at which a dealer is willing to sell, is call

ed the __________. Group of answer choices
Business
1 answer:
Mademuasel [1]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Bid-ask spread.

Explanation:

The difference between the price at which a dealer is willing to buy and the price at which a dealer is willing to sell, is called the bid-ask spread.

Simply stated, the bid-ask spread refers to the amount by which the bid price by a dealer is lower than the ask-price for a security or an asset in the market at a specific period of time.

The bid-ask spread exists because of the need for dealers to cover expenses and make a profit. A bid-ask spread is use in the transaction of the following items; options, future contracts, stocks, and currency pairs.

Generally, a dealer who is willing to sell an asset or securities would receive a bid price while the price at which the dealer is willing to sell his asset to another dealer (buyer) is the ask price.

<em>Hence, the bid-ask spread is simply the difference between the ask price and the bid price. Therefore, a bid-ask spread is a measure of the demand and supply for an asset; where demand represents the bid while supply represents the ask for an asset. </em>

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Holly would like to plan for her daughter’s college education. She would like for her daughter, who was born today, to attend co
Ugo [173]

Answer:

Holly must save $2845.81 at the end of each year

Explanation:

first calculate the value of tuition fees at n = 18

Cash flow formula = Tuition × (1+0.07)^{n}

Discounted CF formula = Cash flow ÷ (1+0.10)^{year}

               10.00%              0

Year   Cash flows   Discounted CF

0           33,799.32  33799.32

1          36,165.28  32877.52

2          38,696.84  31980.86

3          41,405.62  31108.66

FV = $129,766.37

PV = 0

N = 18

rate = 10%

using PMT function in Excel

Annual contribution = $2845.81

4 0
3 years ago
Zoe's Dog Biscuits, inc, has net cash flows from operating activities for the last year of $226 million. The income statement sh
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

D. $65 million

Explanation:

The computation of the  end of year balance for accounts receivable is shown below:

Cash flows from operating activities $226

net income $150

Add: depreciation $85

Less: increase in inventory -$14

Add: increase in wages and taxes $15

Add: increase in account payable $10

Total $246

Change in account receivable -$20

Opening account receivable $45

Ending account receivable $65

5 0
2 years ago
Universal Containers' contact center manager needs to measure the following metrics: - Agent productivity - Customer satisfactio
VLD [36.1K]

Answer: Average handle time

First contact resolution

Explanation:

Since the center manager needs to measure the productivity of the agent and the customer satisfaction, the report that should be recommended by a consultant would be the average handle time and the first contact resolution.

The average handle time shows the time taken for a transaction to be completed. This can be used to determine the productivity of agents. Also, first contact resolution can be used to determine customer satisfaction as it shows the number if queries that were successfully resolved.

8 0
3 years ago
Evaluating whether or not to go forward with the preparation of a proposal is referred to as the __________.
timofeeve [1]

A. Bid/no bid decision

A "bid" is what contractors call their proposals, and in some cases it will not be worth it to even submit a proposal on a job. The stage where contractors decide if it is worth it is called bid/no-bid.

8 0
3 years ago
Marlin Corporation reported pretax book income of $1,000,000. During the current year, the net reserve for warranties increased
jeyben [28]

Answer:

b. $233,100 tax expense

Explanation:

The computation of the current income tax expense or benefit is shown below:

But before that first we have to need to find out the taxable income i.e

= Pretak book income  + increase in net reserve warranties + exceeded amount - dividend deduction

= $1,000,000 + $25,000 + $100,000 - $15,000

= $1,110,000

Now to find out the current income tax expense since the tax rate is not given so we assume the marginal tax rate i.e 21%

So,

= $1,110,000 ×21%

= $233,100

By multiplying the taxable income with the tax rate we can get the income tax expense

7 0
3 years ago
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