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inna [77]
3 years ago
12

Not all buyers of an industry's product have equal degrees of bargaining power with sellers, because

Business
2 answers:
Natalija [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

some sellers may be less sensitive than others to price, quality, or service differences.

Explanation:

Bargaining power is defined as the ability of a buyer to demand for better quality product, better service, or lower prices for goods.

Buyer bargaining power is higher in markets where products are undifferentiated from one another. So no single buyer has ability to determine price and quantity because buyer has other choices.

However where products are differentiated buyers have less bargaining power. This is because they may have no choice when a particular firm produces what they want.

Differentiated markets leads to some sellers having less sensitivelity than others to price, quality, or service differences.

stich3 [128]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

There are several reasons why this can happen and they depend on whether the market is a sellers' or buyers' market. A sellers' market is generally one where the number of buyers is very large and they tend to make small transactions. On the other hand, sellers are less sensitive to price or product differentiation because demand is higher than the supply. This results in a shortage of goods which in turn gives the sellers higher pricing power.

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Nike, Inc., with headquarters in Beaverton, Oregon, is one of the world's leading manufacturers of athletic shoes and sports app
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

Nike, Inc.

Transaction Analysis and Indication of the account, amount, and direction of the effect on the accounting equation:

a. Purchased additional buildings for $172 and equipment for $270; paid $432 in cash and signed a long-term note for the rest.

Analysis:

Accounts affected: Building, Equipment, Cash, and Long-term Note Payable

Assets (Building +$172,000,000, Equipment + $270,000,000, Cash -$432,000,000) = Liabilities (Long-term Note Payable + $10,000,000) + Equity

Check: Assets +$10,000,000 = Liabilities + $10,000,000 + Equity

b. Issued 100 shares of $2 par value common stock for $345 cash.

Analysis:

Accounts Affected:  Common Stock, Additional Paid-in Capital (APIC), and Cash

Assets (Cash +$345,000,000) = Liabilities + Equity (Common Stock +$200,000,000 and APIC +$145,000,000)

Check: Assets +$345,000,000 = Liabilities + Equity +$345,000,000

c. Declared $145,000,000 in dividends to be paid in the following year.

Analysis:

Accounts affected: Dividends Payable and Dividends (Retained Earnings)

Assets = Liabilities (Dividends Payable + $145,000,000) + Equity (Retained Earnings - $145,000,000

Check: Assets = Liabilities -$145,000,000 + Equity - $145,000,000

d. Purchased additional short-term investments for $7,616,000,000 cash.

Analysis:

Accounts Affected: Short-term Investments and Cash

Assets(Short-term Investments + $7,616,000,000, Cash -$7,616,000,000) = Liabilities + Equity

Check: Assets = Liabilities + Equity

e. Several Nike investors sold their own stock to other investors on the stock exchange for $84

No impact on the accounting equation.

f. Sold $4,313 in short-term investments for $4,313 in cash.

Analysis:

Accounts Affected: Short-term Investments and Cash

Assets(Short-term Investments - $4,313,000,000, Cash +$4,313,000,000) = Liabilities + Equity

Check: Assets = Liabilities + Equity

Explanation:

In Nike's financial records, the accounting equation is the basis for the double-entry system of accounting.  It shows that the two sides of the financial position of Nike, Inc. are always in balance with the assets = liabilities + equity with the occurrence of each business transaction.  This is because, two or more accounts are always involved and affect equally the two sides if proper accounting has been carried out.

5 0
3 years ago
Gordon Company's controller, Eric Junior, estimated the following formula, based on monthly data, for overhead cost:
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

Gordon Company

Overhead Cost = $150,000 + ($52 x Direct Labor Hours)

Budgeted overhead cost For next month = $150,000 + ($52 x 8000)

                                                                    =$ 150,000+ 416,000

Budgeted overhead cost For next month= $ 566,000

Budgeted overhead cost For next quarter =$150,000 + ($52 x 23,000)

                                                        =$ 150,000+ 1196,000

Budgeted overhead cost For next quarter = $ 1346,000

Budgeted overhead cost For next year =$150,000 + ($52 x 99,000)

                                                             = =$ 150,000+ 5148,000

Budgeted overhead cost For next year= $ 5298,000

5 0
4 years ago
PLLZZ HELLLP DUE IN 1 MINNNN
Helen [10]

Answer:

A is the correct answer I think hope this helps

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When a magazine company collects cash for selling a subscription, it is an example of: Multiple Choice An accrued liability tran
katrin [286]

The complete question is:

When a magazine company collects cash for selling a subscription, it is an example of:

1. A deferred revenue transaction

2. An accrued receivable transaction

3. A prepaid expense transaction

4. An accrued liability transaction

Answer:

A deferred revenue transaction.

Explanation:

In this scenario the magazine company has collected cash for a subscription. Subscriptions are payments that are made to gain access to a certain service. Take for example if a subscription has to be paid to a company to access their website for information. The cash has been collected but service is to be provided in the future. When service is not yet provided and payment is collected it is referred to as deferred revenue.

This is because the service has not yet been performed so revenue is not yet earned. When service is provided then the revenue is recognised.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Item 1Item 1 Narchie sells a single product for $50. Variable costs are 60% of the selling price, and the company has fixed cost
Katarina [22]

Answer:

$235,000

Explanation:

The computation fo the safety margin is shown below:

As we know that

Margin of safety = Expected sales - break even sales

where,

Expected sales is

= 29,000 units × $50

= $1,450,000

And, the break even sales is

= Fixed cost ÷ contribution margin per unit

= $486,000 ÷ ($50 - $50 × 0.60)

= $486,000 ÷ $20

= 24,300 units

And, the selling price is $50

So the break even sales is

= 24,300 units × $50

= $1,215,000

So, the safety margin is

= $1,450,000 - $1,215,000

= $235,000

3 0
3 years ago
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