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Vlada [557]
3 years ago
12

How to use series to find definite integral?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kvv77 [185]3 years ago
6 0
Given

\displaystyle\int_a^bf(x)\,\mathrm dx

you can evaluate the integral by first expanding f(x) as a series, say

\displaystyle\int_a^b\sum_{n\ge0}c_nx^n\,\mathrm dx

then interchange the order of integration/summation (provided Fubini's theorem holds; it usually will, so no need to worry greatly about this aspect) to write

\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}c_n\int_a^bx^n\,\mathrm dx

Then evaluating the integral yields

\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}c_n\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}\bigg|_{x=a}^{x=b}
\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}c_n\frac{b^{n+1}-a^{n+1}}{n+1}

Given an appropriate sequence c_n, you would then be able to evaluate the integral exactly, or at the very least find a partial sum that approximates the value of the integral to within a specified degree of accuracy.

Here's an example that demonstrates the procedure. Suppose we want to evaluate the definite integral

\displaystyle\int_0^1\sin\pi x\,\mathrm dx

Recall that

\sin x=\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}

so that we can write the definite integral as

\displaystyle\int_0^1\sin\pi x\,\mathrm dx=\int_0^1\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n(\pi x)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\,\mathrm dx=\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\int_0^1x^{2n+1}\,\mathrm dx

Integrating yields

\displaystyle\int_0^1x^{2n+1}\,\mathrm dx=\frac{x^{2n+2}}{2n+2}\bigg|_{x=0}^{x=1}=\frac1{2n+2}

and so we're left with

\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+1}}{(2n+2)(2n+1)!}=\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+1}}{(2n+2)!}

The trick now is to evaluate the sum. Well, recall that

\cos x=\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^nx^{2n}}{(2n)!}

Our sum closely resembles this power series. In our sum, we have odd powers of \pi in the numerator, but even factorials in the denominator. We can adjust for this by simply multiplying by \dfrac\pi\pi:

\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+1}}{(2n+2)!}=\frac1\pi\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+2}}{(2n+2)!}

Now, our denominators take the form 2!,4!,6!,\ldots, while the cosine series proceeds with 0!,2!,4!,\ldots - in other words, our sum skips the first term of the cosine series. We can adjust for this as well, by adding and subtracting the same term of 1. In terms of our summand, we can get -1 by plugging in n=-1, so we can write

\displaystyle\frac1\pi\left(-1+1+\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n+2}}{(2n+2)!}\right)=\frac1\pi\left(1+\sum_{n\ge-1}\frac{-1)^n\pi^{2n+2}}{(2n+2)!}\right)

Then shifting the index by 1 so that it starts at n=0 gives

\displaystyle\frac1\pi\left(1+\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}\right)

and now our sum exactly resembles to the negated cosine series evaluated at x=\pi.

\displaystyle\frac1\pi\left(1+\underbrace{\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}}_{-\cos\pi}\right)=\frac1\pi(1-\cos\pi)=\frac1\pi(1-(-1))=\frac2\pi

We can verify that this result is correct:

\displaystyle\int_0^1\sin\pi x\,\mathrm dx=\frac1\pi\int_0^1\sin\pi x\,\mathrm d(\pi x)=-\frac1\pi\cos \pi x\bigg|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-\frac1\pi(\cos\pi-\cos0)=\frac2\pi
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