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Arisa [49]
3 years ago
12

Devon worked for a major corporation for 20 years but recently switched jobs because she wanted to make a larger contribution to

her community and help young people who are disadvantaged. Now she works for a nonprofit organization that promotes public awareness about teenage runaways. According to Erikson, Devon is working through the developmental stage of _______.
Business
1 answer:
ddd [48]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

generativity versus stagnation

Explanation:

found the answer to your question here and this website likely has the questions to the whole assignment https://quizlet.com/107290559/psych-chapter-4-mastery-quiz-flash-cards/

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The following table shows a portion of a three-year amortization schedule. A 3-year amortization schedule. The loan amount or pr
larisa [96]

The correct statement is that at the end of two years a total interest of 1246.10 has been paid  on a principal of $11940, where the interest rate is 7.45 percent. So, the correct option is B.

The calculation on monthly payment of interest can be done by ascertainment of the interest paid for two years and division of such amount by total number of months.

<h3>Calculation of Monthly Payment</h3>

We know that the interest to be paid for the first year will be close to $902 and that for the second year will be calculated as follows,

\rm Interest for\ Second\ Year= Monthly\ Payment\ x\ 12\\\\\rm Interest for\ Second\ Year= 28.69\ x\ 12\\\\\rm Interest for\ Second\ Year= \$344.28

So, the total interest paid at the end of the second year will be,

\rm Total\ Interest\ for\ Two\ Years= Interest\ for\ One\ Year+ Interest\ for\ Second\ Year\\\\\rm Total\ Interest\ for\ Two\ Years= 902+344.10\\\\\rm Total\ Interest\ for\ Two\ Years= \$1246.10

So, the total interest paid fully at the end of two years will be $1246.10

Hence, the correct option is B that the  total interest of 1246.10 has been paid  on a principal of $11940 at the end of two years upon monthly payments of such years.

Learn more about monthly payment here:

brainly.com/question/22891559

5 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of 2016, Gannon Company received a three-year zero-interest-bearing $1,000 trade note. The market rate for equi
notka56 [123]

Answer:

d. Overstate, understate, understate, zero

Explanation:

The amount of earnings overall is the same. so, in the end, there is n difference in retained earnings.

But, on accrual accounting, the note should not enter the accounting as 1,000 as time value of money exist.

At 2016 the sales revenue should be the present value of 1,000 dollars not the complete 1,000 dollars. Thus, is overstated.

Then, the interest accrued from the note are not recognized. Thus, the first year (2016) recognize revenues that should be matched with 2017 and 2018

Thus, these two subsequent years ended understated.

6 0
3 years ago
During the recent economic crisis, many financial managers and corporate officers have been criticized for (a) poor decisions, (
Ksju [112]
<span>During the recent financial crisis, many financial managers and corporate officers have been criticized for (c) Large salaries. This criticism is certainly justified given that most executives received exorbitant compensation despite a plunge in the value of their companies. Thus, their salaries are not justifiable as they are not serving the needs of the shareholders whose interest they should serve. </span>
7 0
3 years ago
Define black hole.......​
larisa [96]

Answer:

hope this helps

Explanation:

A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light can not get out.

8 0
3 years ago
When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized? a. Annually on a systematic and rational basis. b. Never When both the fair value
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.

Explanation:

Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.

Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
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