X= cost per cherry pie
y= cost per pumpkin pie
NICOLE
1x + 9y= $60
LISA
11x + 4y= $90
STEP 1
multiply Nicole's equation by -11
-11(1x + 9y)= -11($60)
multiply -11 by all terms
(-11 * x) + (-11 * 9y)= (-11 * 60)
-11x - 99y= -660
STEP 2
add Nicole's new equation from step 1 to Lisa's equation to solve for y (using the elimination method)
-11x - 99y= -660
11x + 4y= 90
the x terms "cancel out"
-95y= -570
divide both sides by -95
y= $6 per pumpkin pie
STEP 3
substitute y value into either original equation to solve for x
x + 9y= $60
x + 9(6)= 60
x + 54= 60
subtract 54 from both sides
x= $6 per cherry pie
CHECK
11x + 4y= $90
11(6) + 4(6)= 90
66 + 24= 90
90= 90
ANSWER: Each cherry pie costs $6 and each pumpkin pie costs $6.
Hope this helps! :)
Part a) Total Cost
Total Cost for recapping the tires is the sum of fixed cost and the variable cost. i.e.
The total cost is ( $65,000 fixed) + (15,000 x $7.5)
=$65,000+$112,500
=$177,500
Part b) Total Revenue
Revenue from 1 tire = $25
Total tires recapped = 15000
So, Total revenue = 15000 tires x $25/tire
Total Revenue =$375,000
Part c) Total Profit
Total Profit = Revenue - Cost
Using the above values, we get:
Profit = $375,000 - $177,500
Profit = $197,500
Part d) Break-even Point
Break-even point point occurs where the cost and the revenue of the company are equal. Let the break-even point occurs at x-tires. We can write:
For break-even point
Cost of recapping x tires = Revenue from x tires
65,000 + 7.5 x = 25x
65,000 = 17.5 x
x = 3714 tires
Thus, on recapping 3714 tires, the cost will be equal to the revenue generating 0 profit. This is the break-even point.
Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:
a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.
b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.
c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
For this problem, the values of the parameters are:
n = 3, p = 0.76.
Item a:
The probability is P(X = 2), hence:
Item b:
The probability is P(X < 3), hence:
P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)
In which:
Then:
P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.
Item c:
The probability is:
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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It’s 20% because 10/10 would be 100% and 1/10 would be 10%
