Answer:
Machine B has a higher NPV therefore should be produced
Explanation:
The machine with the higher Net Present Value (NPV) should be produced .
NPV of Machine A
PV of cash flow
PV of annual profit = A × (1- (1+r)^*(-n)/r
A- 92,000, n- 11, r- 12%
PV = 92,000 × (1- (1.12^(-11)/0.12 = 546268.32
PV of salvage value = 13,000× 1.12^(-11)= 3737.189
NPV = 546268.320 + 3737.189 -250,000 = $300,005.50
NPV of Machine B
A- 103,00, n- 19, r- 12%
PV = 103,000 × (1- (1.12^(-19)/0.12= 758675.0165
Pv of salvage value = 26000× 1.12^(-19)= 3018.776199
NPV =758675.0165 + 3018.77 -460,000 = $301,693.79
Machine B has a higher NPV , therefore should be produced.
Answer:
present value = $785.21
Explanation:
given data
interest rate r = 5%
Year 1 Cash Flow C1 = $190
Year 2 Cash Flow C2 = $390
Year 3 Cash Flow C3 = $290
time t = 3 year
solution
we get here present value of cash-flow stream that is express as
present value = ......................1
put here value and we get
present value =
present value = $785.21
Answer: The final payment would be: $42919,74.
Explanation: To simplify the work we must make a timeline:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
$6000 $6000 $6000 $6000 $6000 $6000
These would be the normal conditions of the loan.
but if instead of making the 6 payments only one is made at the end:
We must use the FV annuity formula:
6000 × = <u>42919,74</u>