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alexira [117]
3 years ago
8

When a company is using the direct​ write-off method, and an account is written​ off, the journal entry consists of a​ ________.

A. debit to the Allowance for Bad Debts and a credit to Accounts Receivable B. credit to Accounts Receivable and a debit to Bad Debts Expense C. debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Cash D. credit to Accounts Receivable and a debit to Interest Expense
Business
1 answer:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

An uncollectible account or bad debt is an account receivable that the business cannot collect. Businesses account for bad debts by using :

-the allowance method.

-the direct write-off method .

The direct write-off method is primarily used by businesses with few credit customers. When it is determined that a customer is not going to pay, the uncollectible account is removed from the records.

To remove from the records, there is a credit to Accounts Receivable (asset account, increase by the debit) and a debit to Bad Debts Expense (expense account, increase by the debit).

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Following are the transactions of a new company called Pose-for-Pics.
liraira [26]

Answer:

                               Pose-for-Pics

                               Trial Balance

                For the month ended August 31

                                                    DEBIT      CREDIT

b. Cash                                       8,539

c. Offices                               2,280

d. Prepaid insurance               2,300

e. Photography equipment      51,600

f. Common stock                                      63,600

g. Photography fees earned                2,000

<u>h. Utilities expense                  881                   </u>

i. Totals                                     65,600    65,600

Explanation:

In trial balance, all accounts in general either real or nominal is posted here whether on debit or credit side. It shows the balances of debits and credits entries from the transaction of the general journal that the company have made for the period. There are 2 types of trial balance, the unadjusted trial balance and the adjusted trial balance.

8 0
4 years ago
______ consist of standards and tools that streamline and simplify communication among web sites and that promise to revolutioni
lesya692 [45]
The blank is Web services.
7 0
4 years ago
The following data relate to labor cost for production of 22,000 cellular telephones:
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Production= 22,000 units

Actual: 4,220 hrs. at $44.50

Standard: 4,160 hrs. at $46.00

<u>To calculate the direct labor time and rate variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (4,160 - 4,220)*46

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $2,760 unfavorable

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Direct labor rate variance= (46 - 44.5)*4,220

Direct labor rate variance= $6,330 favorable

Total variance= 6,330 - 2,760

Total variance= $3,570 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
What is the key to economics? Explain.
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

At the most basic level, economics attempts to explain how and why we make the purchasing choices we do.

Explanation:

this was a answer from my school

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You can buy property today for $2.1 million and sell it in 6 years for $3.1 million. A. If the interest rate is 11%, what is the
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

Present value of sales price =  465,395.16

Present Value of future cash flow=  465,359.16  

Explanation:

The present value of a sum expected in the future is the worth today given an opportunity cost interest rate. In another words ,it is amount receivable today that would make the investor to be indifferent between the amount receivable today and the future sum.

The present value of a lump sum can be worked out as follows:

PV = FV × (1+r)^(-n)

Present Value of sales price= 3.1 × 1.11^(-6) =1.65739

Present Value=165,738.65

Present Value of an annuity of 110,000 for 6 years:

PV = A × 1- ( (1+r)^(-n))/r

PV = 110,000× (1-1.11^(-6))/0.11= 465,359.16  

PV =  465,359.16  

5 0
3 years ago
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