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umka21 [38]
3 years ago
6

An exterior angle of a regular polygon cannot have the measure Select one: a. 90 b. 120 c. 50 d. 40 e. 30

Mathematics
2 answers:
Otrada [13]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:  c. 50

Step-by-step explanation:

1. By definition, when you add the exterior angles of a regular polygon, you obtain 360 degrees and the number of sides of that polygon can be calculated by dividing 360 degrees by the measure of the exterior angle of it.

2. As you know, the number of sides cannot be fractions, therefore, if you make the folllowing division:

360°/50°=36/5

You obtain a fraction.

3. Then, an exterior angle of a regular polygon cannot have the measure is 50°.

jolli1 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option c 50 cannot be the measure of exterior angle.

Step-by-step explanation:

SInce sum of the exterior  angles  of a polygon is 360

therefore only the angle which can evenly divides 360 can be the measure of exterior angle.

since 360÷90 = 4

         360 ÷120 =3

         360÷40 = 9

        360 ÷30 = 12

        360÷50 = 7.2

All the values except 50 divides evenly 360

therefore 50 cannot be the measure of exterior angle

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In the figure above, quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram. Let x represent the measure of angle GBF, y represent the measure of
ira [324]
Answers:
measure angle x = 40°
measure angle y = 35°
measure angle z = 55°

Explanation:
Part (a): getting angle x:
In triangle BED, we have:
measure angle BED = 90°
measure angle BDE = 50°
Therefore:
measure angle DBE = 180 - (90+50) = 40°
Now, we have angle DBE and angle GBF vertically opposite angles.
This means that they are both equal. Therefore angle GBF = 40°
Since angle GBF is x, therefore:
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Part (b): getting angle y:
We know that the sum of measures of angles on a straight line is 180.
This means that:
angle GBF + angle GBC + angle CBE = 180
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angle GBC = 105°
angle CBE = y
Therefore:
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Part (c): getting angle z:
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Hope this helps :)

8 0
3 years ago
Let the probability of success on a Bernoulli trial be 0.26. a. In five Bernoulli trials, what is the probability that there wil
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

Step-by-step explanation:

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Binomial probability distribution

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P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

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This means that p = 0.26

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P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.26)^{1}.(0.74)^{4} = 0.3898

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

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8 0
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Step-by-step explanation:

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