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mash [69]
3 years ago
13

A speedboat is considered to be a normal good and a luxury good. therefore, we would expect the income elasticity of demand to b

e:
Business
1 answer:
Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
4 0
<span>Speedboat is considered to be a luxury good. Income elasticity is considered to be positive with the level of income which means if the income level is higher then the demand for luxury goods will also be higher. In this case, as the income increases, the demand of speedboat will be increased. Hence, speedboat has a positive relation with income elasticity of demand.</span>
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Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respe
Lena [83]

Answer:

$856,376.30

Explanation:

What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?

2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%

==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)

==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)

==> 100,000*(9.545454(

==> 954,545

Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.

Years  Cash-flows   PVF at 16%    Present value

1           800,000       0.86206         68964.80

2          105,000        0.74316           78031.80

2          954,545        0.74316           <u>709379.70</u>

            Total value                           <u>856,376.30</u>

8 0
3 years ago
Assume that you have a subsidiary in Australia. The subsidiary sells mobile homes to local consumers in Australia, who buy the h
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

B. decrease

Explanation:

The subsidiary's cost of purchasing materials measured in Australian dollar will decrease. The subsidiary in Australia sells mobile homes. It borrows funds from local bank and purchases material from Hong Kong and pays Hong Kong in HK$ which is tied to US dollar. So when Australian dollar appreciates against the Hong Kong dollar, it will appreciate against US dollar as the Hong Kong dollar is tied to US dollar. The subsidiary will pay decreased cost of purchasing material due to appreciations of A$ by increasing interest rate in Australia.  

4 0
2 years ago
The costs incurred by a business in an effort to avoid bankruptcy are classified as _____ costs. Flotation Direct bankruptcy Ind
poizon [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is indirect bankruptcy costs.

Explanation:

Indirect costs are considered to be damage to the image and reputation of the company, lost investment opportunities, credit restrictions, conflicts with suppliers, loss of sales, conflicts with workers. Indirect costs are usually much higher than direct costs.

6 0
3 years ago
Fernandez Company had an accounts receivable balance of​ $150,000 on December​ 31, Year 2 and​ $175,000 on December​ 31, Year 3.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

The amount collected from customers on accounts receivable during year 3 is $535,000.

Explanation:

Cash received from accounts receivable = Opening balance of AR + Credit Sales - Bad debts written off - Closing balance of AR.

  • The opening balance for year 3 account receivables was 150000.
  • Credit Sales = 600000
  • Bad debts = 40000
  • Closing Balance = 175000

We can solve this question either by making a T account for accounts receivable or using the equation given above.

Cash = 150000 + 600000 - 40000 - 175000 = $535000

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Olsen Company uses a standard cost system for its production process. Olsen Company applies overhead based on direct labor hours
Digiron [165]

Answer:

1800

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
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