Answer:
Credit to the PBO for $13,500
Explanation:
Defined benefit pension plan is a pension structure adopted by a company in which an employee is guaranteed payments in the future for example after retirement. Since the payments are given far into the future, complex calculations are required to compute how to account for annual expenses and changes in pension obligation.
Now, under the above plan, the amount of the future benefits that will be paid for by the company depends on a multitude of factors such length of time served, an employee lifespan. The annual expense needs to match the recognition of the related expense in the period in which the particular employee renders the service for which they will be paid in the future.
So, the formula for Periodic (Annual) Pension Expense is Interest Costs (Interest incurred on the beginning Projected Benefit Obligation) + Service Costs (Present Value of the projected retirement benefits earned in the current period) - Actual Return on Plan Assets (the returns provided by the assets held under the Company's pension plan) + Amortization of Prior Service Costs (changes to pension expense as a retroactive amendments to the pension plan) +/- Amortization of Actuarial Gains or Losses (the change in the PBO as a result of changes in assumptions used to calculate the PBO).
The question provides us with the interest costs, the services costs, and the expected return on plan assets with other costs being nil.
Therefore, annual pension expense is Service Costs + Interest Costs - Expected Return on Plan Assets = 18,500 + 5,500 - 10,500 = 13,500.
The journal entry is a credit to the PBO of the amount of the expense and a debit to the Pension Expense. Note that the difference between ending PBO and beginning PBO is NOT equivalent to annual expense since other items such as company's contribution and changes in fair value of the liability also impact the PBO.
Answer:
a.
Assets Side
Required Reserves $10 million
Excess Reserves $51 million
Loans $70 million
Total $131 million
Liabilities Side
Checkable Deposits $120 million
Bank Capital $11 million
Total $131 million
b. Bank capitalization can be measured with bank Leverage Ratio.
= Capital/Assets
= 11/131
= 8.40%
Bank is considered well capitalized if ratio is above 5% so Oldhat Financial is well capitalized.
c. Risk Weighted Assets = $50 million
Risk weighted capital ratio = 22%
Commercial loans are 100% risk weighted = $ 30 million
Residential mortgages are 50% risk weighted = $ 20 millions
Total = $50 million.
Risk weighted Capital Ratio = Bank capital / Total risk weighted assets
= 11/50
= 22%
The used car will have higher insurance premiums because there is a higher chance that it will malfunction and that they will have to pay for your expenses. A new car is cheaper when it comes to premiums because it is expected to last and the insurance companies are safer in this regard.
Answer:
Customer Type Segmentation
Explanation:
Customer Type Segmentation is a process where a company analyzes and divides its customer base into groups following a common factor between then. For example, it could be age, residence place, monthly income, etc. In this case, Zappos is dividing its customer base into groups based on what kind of business they are in. That offers a variety of benefits, such as targeted ads, better retention strategies or a superior and personalized customer experience.
inventory cost flow assumption influence by tax implications of choice ,financial statement effect, actual physical flow of inventory.
<h3>What Is Cost Flow?</h3>
The way or channel that costs move through a company is referred to as the flow of costs. The flow of costs typically pertains to manufacturing businesses where accountants are required to quantify expenses associated with raw materials, work in progress, finished goods inventory, and cost of goods sold.
Four commonly acknowledged methods—specific cost, average cost, first-in, first-out (FIFO), and last-in, first-out—are available for allocating expenses to ending inventory and cost of goods sold (LIFO).
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