Answer:
The correct answer is A, as the statement is true. When a lease runs for an indefinite period, which may be terminated at any time by the landlord or the tenant, a tenancy at will exists.
Explanation:
Tenancy at will is called the situation in which the tenant is in a leasing or rental property without a specific contract that establishes a period of duration, with the endorsement of the owner to stay but through a simple agreement of word that can be finished at any moment, by the will of the owner or tenant.
Thus, there is a certain insecurity for the tenant, who does not know with certainty how long they will have the right to remain in the place. Therefore, the existence of a leasing contract or location is always recommended to avoid inconveniences between owners and tenants.
This, to me, sounds like precedent. I'm not surer if that complies maybe with one of the answer choices, but I hope it helps!!! <3
Some Reasons:
Europeans had begun to demand valuable goods such as silk and spices that could only be found in Asia, and also European merchants had manufactured goods to sell in Asia but needed a way to get them there.
Why:
Europeans wanted valuable goods like silk and spices. But these goods were only found in Asia. Europeans needed a sea route so they won't have to just explore to try to find their way to Asia. Kings especially wanted these nice goods, so they <em>really </em>wanted a sea route then.
European merchants manufactured goods to sell in Asia. But if they wanted to manufacture the goods, they would have to have a way to get there!
The Holocaust! Hope this helps you with your answer.