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Arada [10]
4 years ago
5

A borrower expresses a reluctance to continue signing documents. The Notary Signing Agent may:

Business
1 answer:
snow_tiger [21]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Recommend the borrower contact the lender representative before signing anymore documents

Explanation:

Notary agents are usually independent professionals within the sector or third parties , who are contracted to create sure all loan documents are signed and notarized properly and delivered . A Notary agent isn't authorized to answer questions on the most points contained within the loan, however a notary agent can give opinions to a signer whether the terms of a loan are a good or not. But if the opinions are on interest rates or other questions concerning the loan, rather it would be best to refer the signer or borrower to contact the lender’s representative

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A work breakdown structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective. true false
Eddi Din [679]

A work breakdown structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective- FALSE

   By adopting task breaking, a popular productivity technique, workload can be made more reasonable and approachable. The instrument used to apply this method to projects is the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), one of the important project management papers. To ensure that project plans are in sync, it does it on its own by combining size, cost, and schedule baselines.

A  Work Breakdown structure is used to graphically, hierarchically, and deliverable-focused decompose a project (WBS). Project managers can use it to break down the focus of their operations and view all the tasks required to complete them, making it a helpful diagram.

To learn more about Work Breakdown structure click here:

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4 0
2 years ago
A year ago, Jasper Inc. sold 20-year bonds at par with a coupon rate of 4.5 percent and semiannual payments. The face value of e
scoray [572]

Answer:

= $877.32

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).</em>

<em>Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV</em>

The value of bond for Jasper Inc can be worked out as follows:

Step 1

<em>PV of interest payments</em>

<em>Semi annul interest paymen</em>t

= 4.5% × 1000 × 1/2

= 22.5

<em>Semi-annual yield</em> = 5.6/2 = 2.8% per six months

<em>Total period to maturity (in months)</em>

= (2 × 19) = 38 periods  <em> (Note it was sold a year ago)</em>

<em>PV of interest = </em>

<em> </em>22.5 × (1- (1+0.028)^(-38)/0.028)

= 22.5 ×23.20871226

= 522.196

Step 2

<em>PV of Redemption Value</em>

= 1,000 × (1.056)^(-19)

= 355.128

<em>Price of bond</em>

=  522.19 + 355.12

= $877.32

<em />

                               

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is false?
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

The false statement is letter "C": Stratification of the population into several homogeneous sub-populations generally reduces audit efficiency.

Explanation:

Stratification is the method of grouping a population into subpopulations, with each group of units having similar characteristics. The efficiency of audits can be increased if the auditor stratifies a population by grouping it into different sub-populations since the variability of items will be reduced.

8 0
3 years ago
The economy’s current level of equilibrium gdp is $780 billion. the full-employment level of gdp is $800 billion. the multiplier
4vir4ik [10]
The answer is <span>$20 billion a recessionary. The difference between the current level and the full employment level gdp is  </span><span>$20 billion. This is recessionary because the targeted gdp was not met. It is not inflationary because inflation is about the increase of prices of products and gdp is a national economic indicator used to tell an overall increase or decrease in the economic situation.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Venezuela Co. is building a new hockey arena at a cost of $2,500,000. It received a downpayment of $500,000 from local businesse
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

cash                             2,011,446 debit

unamortized bond cost  50,000 debit

            bonds payable               2,000,000 credit

            premium on BP                     61,446 credit

--to record issuance--

# Beg. Carrying //cash   // expense //Amortization// End.Carrying Value

1 2,061,446  210,000   206144.57 3855.43  2,057,590

2 2,057,590  210,000  205759.02 -4240.98  2,053,349

3 2,053,349  210,000  205334.93 -4665.07  2,048,684

4 2,048,684  210,000  204868.42 -5131.58  2,043,553

5 2,043,553  210,000  204355.26 -5644.74  2,037,908

Bonds payable          1,000,000 debit

premium on BP              24,342 debit

issuance cost expense 25,000 debit

interest expense           51,217.1  debit

loss at redemption        41.959,9‬ debit

  cash                                                     1,117,500 credit                      

  unarmortized bond issuance cost       25,000 credit

Explanation:

First, we solve the value collected which is the present value of the coupon payment and maturity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 210,000.000

time 10

rate 0.1

210000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-10} }{0.1} = PV\\

PV $1,290,359.0922

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   2,000,000.00

time   10.00

rate  0.1

\frac{2000000}{(1 + 0.1)^{10} } = PV  

PV   771,086.58

PV c  $  1,290,359.0922

PV m  $     771,086.5789

Total  $  2,061,445.6711

Now, we solve for the premium

2,061,446 - 2,000,000 = 61,446 premium

the interst expense will be calcualte as carrying value times market rate

the cash will be the same for every period thus 210,000

Finally, the difference will be the amortizationon the premium

If redem on July 1st 2016 we need to record the interst:

2,048,684 x .05 = 102.434,2/2 = 51.217,1

cash interest: 1,000,000 x 10.5% / 2  = 52,500

<em>Total cash</em>

52,500 interest

<u>1,065,000 bonds </u>

 1,117,500

portion of unamortized cost 25,000

face value 1,000,000

portion of premium: 48,684/2 = 24.342‬

the loss f redemption will be the difference between the interest expense, amoritzation on premiun and write-off of the face value with the amount of cash outlay.

8 0
3 years ago
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