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3 years ago

F=5/4(n-90) Find n Helppp

Mathematics

1 answer:

padilas [110]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

n= 4f/5+90

Step-by-step explanation:

f= 5(n−90) /4 (simplify)

f * 4=5(n−90) (multiply 4 on both sides)

4f=5(n−90) (regroup)

4f/5 =n−90 (divide 5 on both sides)

4f/5 +90=n (add 90 to both sides)

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Suppose a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 h

vladimir2022 [97]

A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>

Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:

1 - 0.12 = 0.88
0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001

Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
0.0857 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
0.0000000001 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534

3 0

2 years ago

Use the drop-down menu to create true statements,

taurus [48]

Answer:

A) Vertical test

B) y=x

C) x

D) domain

5 0

2 years ago

A phone is 35 percent off which is now worth 78 pounds what was the original price

Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

120 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

65% of y= 78 pounds

$\frac{65}{100}$ × y = 78 pounds

65y = 78 × 100=7800

y= 7800/65= 120 pounds

7 0

2 years ago

All vectors are in Rn. Check the true statements below:

Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

A), B) and D) are true

Step-by-step explanation:

A) We can prove it as follows:

$Proy_{cv}y=\frac{(y\cdot cv)}{||cv||^2}cv=\frac{c(y\cdot v)}{c^2||v||^2}cv=\frac{(y\cdot v)}{||v||^2}v=Proy_{v}y$

B) When you compute the product Ax, the i-th component is the matrix of the i-th column of A with x, denote this by Ai x. Then, we have that $||Ax||=\sqrt{(A_1 x)^2+\cdots (A_n x)^2}$ . Now, the colums of A are orthonormal so we have that (Ai x)^2=x_i^2. Then $||Ax||=\sqrt{(x_1)^2+\cdots (x_n)^2}=||x||$ .

C) Consider $S=\{(0,2),(2,0)\}\subseteq \mathbb{R}^2$ . This set is orthogonal because $(0,2)\cdot(2,0)=0(2)+2(0)=0$ , but S is not orthonormal because the norm of (0,2) is 2≠1.

D) Let A be an orthogonal matrix in $\mathbb{R}^n$ . Then the columns of A form an orthonormal set. We have that $A^{-1}=A^t$ . To see this, note than the component $b_{ij}$ of the product $A^t A$ is the dot product of the i-th row of $A^t$ and the jth row of $A$ . But the i-th row of $A^t$ is equal to the i-th column of $A$ . If i≠j, this product is equal to 0 (orthogonality) and if i=j this product is equal to 1 (the columns are unit vectors), then $A^t A=I$

E) Consider S={e_1,0}. S is orthogonal but is not linearly independent, because 0∈S.

In fact, every orthogonal set in R^n without zero vectors is linearly independent. Take a orthogonal set $\{u_1,u_2\cdots u_p\}$ and suppose that there are coefficients a_i such that $a_1u_1+a_2u_2\cdots a_nu_n=0$ . For any i, take the dot product with u_i in both sides of the equation. All product are zero except u_i·u_i=||u_i||. Then $a_i||u_i||=0$ then $a_i=0$ .