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nadezda [96]
3 years ago
6

You own a house that you rent for $1,400 per month. The maintenance expenses on the house average $260 per month. The house cost

$231,000 when you purchased it 4 years ago. A recent appraisal on the house valued it at $253,000. If you sell the house you will incur $20,240 in real estate fees. The annual property taxes are $3,100. You are deciding whether to sell the house or convert it for your own use as a professional office. What value should you place on this house when analyzing the option of using it as a professional office
Business
1 answer:
Anni [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$232,760

Explanation:

you must first determine the market value of your house = appraisal value - sales expenses = $253,000 - $20,240 = $232,760

the market value of the house is your opportunity cost of using the house as an office.

opportunity costs are the extra costs or benefits lost resulting from choosing one investment or activity over another alternative.

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Sloan Transmissions, Inc., has the following estimates for its new gear assembly project: price = $2,800 per unit; variable cost
babymother [125]

Answer:

- Values the company should use for the four variables when it performs its best-case scenario analysis:

+ Price = 3,080 per unit;

+ Variable costs = $504 per unit;

+ Fixed cost = $2.7 million;

+ Quantity = 94,600 units.

- Values the company should use for the four variables when it performs its worst-case scenario analysis:

 + Price = 2,520 per unit;

+ Variable costs = $616 per unit;

+ Fixed cost = $3.3 million;

+ Quantity = 77,400 units.

Explanation:

- Under the best-case scenario analysis, price and quantity should be given the highest ( thus the best) estimates while variable costs and fixed costs should be given the lowest ( thus the best) estimates. So, we have:

+ Price = 2,800 x 1.1 = 3,080 per unit;

+ Variable costs = 560 x 0.9 = $504 per unit;

+ Fixed cost = 3 million x 0.9 = $2.7 million;

+ Quantity = 86,000 x 1.1 = 94,600 units.

- Under the worst-case scenario analysis, price and quantity should be given the lowest ( thus the worse) estimates while variable costs and fixed costs should be given the highest ( thus the worst) estimates. So, we have:

+ Price = 2,800 x 0.9 = 2,520 per unit;

+ Variable costs = 560 x 1.1 = $616 per unit;

+ Fixed cost = 3 million x 1.1 = $3.3 million;

+ Quantity = 86,000 x 0.9 = 77,400 units.

6 0
3 years ago
Using the world bank index how many us dollars would buy the same amount of rupees as 862800
Strike441 [17]

With the current exchange rate provided by the word bank, 1 US dollar would be the equivalent of 64.43 Indian Rupees or INR. By knowing this exchange rate, you can simply divide the given amount which is 862,800 Indian Rupees by 64.43 INR. After dividing the two amounts, you will probably have 13,391.28 as your answer. There are a lot of ways in the digital age to convert currencies right now. However, when you exchange your money in exchange centers,do not expect to have the same amount you just calculated since you will be paying for a few taxes and service fees.

5 0
3 years ago
Goods and services (like the police, the army, and parks) that are for the benefit of all people and are provided by the governm
STALIN [3.7K]
<span>B. public goods and services. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The marginal propensity to consume ( MPC) is defined as the fraction of a. total income that a household consumes rather than sa
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

In economics, when the word Marginal is mentioned, it refers to additional, as in one extra unit.

For example when we hear marginal revenue, it means the revenue gotten from selling an additional unit, when we hear or speak of marginal cost, it is the cost of producing or getting one more unit.

Propensity is a tendency, an inclination to do something.

So adding the three words together, marginal propensity to consume will be the tendency or inclination to consume one extra unit as a result of earning extra income.

Hence (MPC) is the fraction of extra income consumed.

I hope the concept is clearer.

5 0
3 years ago
Future Value of Multiple Annuities Assume that you contribute $150 per month to a retirement plan for 20 years. Then you are abl
love history [14]

Answer:

$641,455.26

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the value of your retirement plan after 40 years

First step is to determine FV Using financial calculator

N = 40*12 = 480

I = 8%/12 = .6667

PV = 0,

PMT = $150

CPT FV =$523,651.17

N = 20*12 = 240

I = 8%/12 = .6667

PV = 0

PMT = $200 ($350 - $150)

CPT FV =$117,804.08

Now let determine the value of your retirement plan after 40 years

Sum of FV =$523,651.17+$117,804.08

Sum of FV =$641,455.26

Therefore the value of your retirement plan after 40 years will be $641,455.26

5 0
3 years ago
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