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kupik [55]
3 years ago
11

If you are trying to move an attached term across the equal sign (=), what operation would you use to move it?

Mathematics
1 answer:
n200080 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: If we are trying to move an attached term across the equal sign (=), then we use inverse operation .

Step-by-step explanation:

If we are trying to move an attached term across the equal sign (=), then we use inverse operation .

  • The inverse operations are the opposite operations that reverses the operation of the another operation.

Addition and subtraction are inverse operations.

Multiplication and division are inverse operations.

We can perform the same inverse operation on each side of an equivalent equation without changing the equality.

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Please explain and solve!!! You won't get points unless you explain!!!
konstantin123 [22]
Area of a rectangle of length L and width W is A = LW.

Here, A = 60 ft^2 = (12 ft)(2x-3  ft).  Let's find the values of x for which the area =60 ft^2, and then the values of x for which the area is greater than 60 ft^2.

60 = 12(2x-3) becomes 5 = 2x - 3 after dividing both sides by 12.

Adding 3 to both sides of this last equation results in 8 = 2x, so x = 4.

Does (12 ft)(2[4 ft] - 3) = 60?  Does (12 ft)(5 ft) = 60 sq ft?  YES.

The area of this rectangle will be greater than 60 sq ft if x>4 ft.  (answer)
4 0
3 years ago
Steve made $50 raking leaves and $75 mowing lawns he gave 60% of his earnings to his mother how much did Steve give to his mothe
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

Steve gave his mother $75.

Step-by-step explanation:

Steve earned a total of $125.  Sixty percent of that went to his mother.  Convert 60% into the equivalent decimal fraction and multiply as indicated:

0.60($125) = $75

Steve gave his mother $75.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please help me with that one problem!
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

AAS method can be used to prove that the two triangles are congruent.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the question for the two triangles one pair of opposite angles are equal. One another pair of angles are equal for the two and one pair of sides are also equal of the two.

Hence, the two given triangles are congruent by AAS rule.

Hence, AAS method can be used to prove that the two triangles are congruent.

3 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Csec%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D%7B%5Ccos%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D-%5Cfrac%7B%5Csin%5
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert all the secants and cosecants to cosine and sine, respectively. Recall that csc(x)=1/sin(x) and sec(x)=1/cos(x).

Thus:

\frac{sec(x)}{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{csc(x)cos^2(x)}

=\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{1}{sin(x)}cos^2(x) }

Let's do the first part first: (Recall how to divide fractions)

\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos(x)} \cdot \frac{1}{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}

For the second term:

\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)} } =\frac{sin(x)}{1} \cdot\frac{sin(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

So, all together: (same denominator; combine terms)

\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}-\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

Note the numerator; it can be derived from the Pythagorean Identity:

sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1; cos^2(x)=1-sin^2(x)

Thus, we can substitute the numerator:

\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=1

Everything simplifies to 1.

7 0
3 years ago
14. The equation of the line that passes through the
KIM [24]

Answer:

5.   y = -x

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you need to find the slope of the line.

m = \frac{2 - (-3)}{-2 - 3}  = \frac{5}{-5}  = -1

Now, using either point substitute into the point-slope form for a line:

y - y_{1}  =  m(x - x_{1} )

Using (-2,2) for (x_{1} , y_{1} ) we get y - 2 = -1(x +2)

y - 2 = -x - 2

y = -x

Answer 5 is the correct answer

3 0
3 years ago
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