Answer:
Question 1
B. $41,910
Question 2
C. Debit to interest receivable for $90
Explanation:
Question 1
Calculation for the adjusted cash balance
Using this formula
Adjusted cash balance = Cash balance per books +Deposits in transit - Outstanding checks
Let plug in the formula
Adjusted cash balance= $43,860+$16,800-$18,750
Adjusted cash balance= $41,910
Therefore Adjusted cash balance is $41,910
Question 2
Based on the information given The Appropriate journal entry to record accrued interest at the end of its fiscal year on December 31, 2019 will include a:
Debit to interest receivable for $90 which is calculated as:
Interest receivable=[(6%*$18,000*90days/360)/3]
Interest receivable=$270/3
Interest receivable=$90
The answers are the following:
a.
Brandon:
$7,000 + [($10,000/4)×3¿= $8,500
Ryan:
$7,000 + [($10,000/4)×1¿= $7,500
b.
Brandon $7,000
Ryan <span>$7,000</span>
Answer:
Borrow $19,500
Explanation:
The movement in the cash balance between the beginning an end of a period may be expressed as
opening balance + cash collection - cash disbursed = closing balance
As such, where the company has $11,000 cash at the beginning of June and anticipates $31,000 in cash receipts and $36,500 in cash disbursements during June, the expected closing balance
= $11,000 + $31,000 - $36,500
= $5,500
If the company is owing the bank $15,000 then the company would still owe
= $5,500 - $15,000
= ($9,500)
If the company is expected to maintain a balance of $10,000, the amount to be borrowed must be $10000 in excess of the amount owed the bank. Hence amount to be borrowed
= $10000 + $9500
= $19,500
Given:
Change in exports: 15 billion
MPC = 0.75
MPC = Change in Consumption / Change in Disposable income
MPS stands for Marginal Propensity to Consume while MPS stands for Marginal Propensity to Save.
MPC + MPS = 1
MPC = 1 - MPS
MPS = 1 - MPC
Spending Multiplier = 1/MPS
Since MPC = 0.75 then MPS = 0.25
Spending Multiplier = 1/0.25 = 4
Change in Export * Spending Multiplier
15 billion * 4 = 60 billion
The cumulative Korean spending will drop by 60 billion.
Answer:
1. hurt
2. benefit
Explanation:
Given that a contract and an asset are to be converted in cash early, this implies that, basis risk exists and futures price and spot price should not move in lockstep before delivery date. However, a reduction in the basis will then hurt the long hedger and benefit the short hedger.
Hence, considering the nature of the hypothetical situation, a decrease in the basis will HURT a long hedge and BENEFIT a short hedge.