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Paladinen [302]
3 years ago
12

Greenwell Farm Equipment sells a tractor to Farmer for $130,000 on January​ 1, 2019. The tractor is delivered that day. Greenwel

l agrees that the Farmer may delay the payment for 2 years. The market rate of interest is 10​%. Refer to Greenwell Farms. How much interest revenue will Greenwell report over the life of this​ contract? (Do not round intermediary​ calculations, and round your final answer to the nearest whole​ number.) Use the formula approach
Business
1 answer:
agasfer [191]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Present value of interest is $5,062 and future value is $5,796        

Explanation:

The formula for finding the Present value of the interest reported as revenue is calculated as under:

Present Value of $40,000 receivable in 2 years = $40,000 / (1+7%)^2

Present Value of $40,000 receivable in 2 years = $34,938

The difference of the future value receivable and present value of the future amount receivable is the interest's present value which is given as under:

Interest Present value = $40,000 - $34,938 = $5,062

Using the compounding formula, the future value of the interest that will be recorded in the financial statement will be = $5,062 * (1 + 7%)^2 years

Future value of interest = $5796

You might be interested in
A stock has an expected return of 11.85 percent, its beta is 1.24, and the expected return on the market is 10.2 percent. What m
prisoha [69]

Answer:

The risk free rate is 3.325%

Explanation:

The required rate of return or cost of equity of a stock can be calculated using the CAPM. The CAPM estimates the required rate of return of a stock based on three factors- risk free rate, stock's beta and the market risk premium. The equation of required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

  • rRF is the risk free rate
  • rM is the return on market
  • (rM - rRF) gives us the risk premium of market

We already have the values for r, Beta and rM. Plugging in these values in the formula, we calculate the rRF to be,

Let rRF be x.

0.1185 = x + 1.24 * (0.102 - x)

0.1185 = x + 0.12648 - 1.24x

1.24x - x  =  0.12648 - 0.1185

0.24x = 0.00798

x = 0.00798/0.24

x = 0.03325 or 3.325%

3 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Allgood Company purchased equipment and signed a six-year mortgagenote for $186,000 at 15%. The note will be
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is A: interest= $21048

Explanation:

An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. While each periodic payment is the same amount early in the schedule, the majority of each payment is interest; later in the schedule, the majority of each payment covers the loan's principal.

Each payment is the same ($49,148), but the proportions of interest and capital pay changes. The interest proportion decreases from pay to pay.

Loan= 186000

i= 15%

n= 6 years

First pay:

i=186000*0,15=27900

amortization= 49148-27900=21248

Second pay:

i=(186000-21248)*0,15=24712

amort=49148-24712=24436

Third pay:

i=(164752-24436)*0,15=21048

amort=49148-21048=28100

While payments progress, interest decreases and amortization increases.

5 0
3 years ago
Serotta Corporation is planning to issue bonds with a face value of $450,000 and a coupon rate of 16 percent. The bonds mature i
Brrunno [24]

Answer:

1. Dr Cash 481,588.61

    Cr Bonds payable 450,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 31,588.61

2. March 31

Dr Interest expense 14,447.66

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,552.34

    Cr Cash 18,000

June 30

Dr Interest expense 14,341.09

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,658.91

    Cr Cash 18,000

September 30

Dr Interest expense 14,231.32

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,768.68

    Cr Cash 18,000

December 31

Dr Interest expense 14,118.26

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,881.74

    Cr Cash 18,000

3. carrying value = $466,726.94

Explanation:

face value = $450,000

maturity = 2 years x 4 = 8 periods

coupon rate = 16% / 4 = 4%

coupon = $18,000

YTM = 12% / 4 = 3%

using a financial calculator, the PV of the bonds = $481,588.61

amortization first coupon = ($481,588.61 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,552.34

Dr Interest expense 14,447.66

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,552.34

    Cr Cash 18,000

   

amortization second coupon = ($478,036.27 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,658.91

Dr Interest expense 14,341.09

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,658.91

    Cr Cash 18,000

amortization third coupon = ($474,377.36 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,768.68

Dr Interest expense 14,231.32

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,768.68

    Cr Cash 18,000

amortization fourth coupon = ($470,608.68 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,881.74

Dr Interest expense 14,118.26

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,881.74

    Cr Cash 18,000

5 0
3 years ago
What do the income effect, the substitution effect, and diminishing marginal utility have in common?
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

They all help explain the downsloping demand curve

Explanation:

The options to the question wasn't provided. The complete question can be in the attached image.

The demand curve slopes downward from left to right. This indicates that the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded and the lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded.

Income effect is a change in quantity demanded when real income change. Quantity demanded increases when real income increases and decreases when real income falls.

Substitution effect says that consumers would substituite to the consumption of a cheaper good when the price of a good originally consumed increases.

Diminishing marginal utility states that as consumption increases, utility derived from consumption falls and quantity demanded falls.

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
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