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spayn [35]
3 years ago
8

Assume that you own 3,600 shares of $10 par value common stock and the company has a

Business
1 answer:
kozerog [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The number of shares of common stock own after the stock spilt is 14,400

Explanation:

The number of shares of common stock own after the stock spilt is computed with the formula as:

Number of common stock after stock spilt = Number of common stock before stock spilt × Stock spilt multiple

= 3,600 × 4 / 1

= 14,400 shares

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Answer:Danielle relies on summer earnings to fund her next year at the university. When she tried to get her old high school summer job back at local Cool Rags Clothier, she learned that the manager no longer hires college students during the summer months. Which of the following strategies do you recommend that Danielle pursue?Answer C

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Antoine is proud of his team of warm, knowledgeable, and ethical recruiters at Luvia Insurance. They are sure to give realistic
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Answer: Candidates are not getting timely feedback about their applications.

Explanation:

From the information provided in the question, we realize that Antoine has a team of knowledgeable, and ethical recruiters at Luvia Insurance.

Despite this, Antoine observed that the number of applicants who accept offers has reduced and he realized that developed an unfavorable opinion of Luvia Insurance.

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4 years ago
The Corner Bakery has a bond issue outstanding that matures in 7 years. The bonds pay interest semi-annually. Currently, the bon
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

Ans. The after tax cost of this bond is 2.09%

Explanation:

Hi, first we need to establish the cash flow of the bond, so we can find the after tax cost of the bond. After we find the after tax cash flow of the bond, we must use the IRR function of MS Excel to find the semi-annual cost of this debt, but, all after tax debts should be presented in annual basis. Let me walk you through the process. First, let me show you how it should look.

Face Value      100  

price              101,4  

years                7 years  

Coupon                9%  

Coupon                4,5% semi-annually  

tax                      30%  

   

Per       Cash Flow After Tax  

0                 101,4 101,4  

1                   -4,5 -3,15  

2                   -4,5 -3,15  

3                   -4,5 -3,15  

4                   -4,5 -3,15  

5                   -4,5 -3,15  

6                   -4,5 -3,15  

7                   -4,5 -3,15  

8                   -4,5 -3,15  

9                  -4,5 -3,15  

10                  -4,5 -3,15  

11                  -4,5 -3,15  

12                  -4,5 -3,15  

13                  -4,5 -3,15  

14               -104,5 -73,15  

   

Cost of Debt 1,04% semi-annually

Cost of Debt 2,09% annually

Ok, now, as you can see, there are 14 periods, that is because the coupon is paid semi-annually, the way to find the cash flow (I mean, the bond´s coupon) is:

Coupon (semi-annual)=(Face Value)x\frac{0.09}{2} =4.5

At the end (period 14), we need to add the face value and the coupon, that is $100+$4.5=$104.5

Now, to find the value of the third column (after-tax cost), we do the following.

After-tax-Cost=Couponx(1-taxes)=4.5(1-0.3)=3.15\\

Now, consider this, you are receiving 101.4 for every 100 of debt, that means that you are receiving more money than the emission value, and paying interests over 100 instead of 101.4, that is why we have to use the IRR excel function to find out the semi-annual cost of debt. That is, 1.04%.

Now, to make this an effective annual rate, we calculate it like this.

EffectiveAnnualRate=(1+semi-annual Rate)^{\frac{1}{2} }  -1=(1+0.0104)^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.0209

Finally, the after-tax cost of this debt is = 2.09%

Best of luck.

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