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klemol [59]
2 years ago
13

Twelve years ago, the Archer Corporation borrowed $6,200,000. Since then, cumulative inflation has been 80 percent (a compound r

ate of approximately 5 percent per year).
a. When the firm repays the original $6,200,000 loan this year, what will be the effective purchasing power of the $6,200,000? (Hint: Divide the loan amount by one plus cumulative inflation.) (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to the nearest whole dollar.)
b. To maintain the original $6,200,000 purchasing power, how much should the lender be repaid? (Hint: Multiply the loan amount by one plus cumulative inflation.) (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your ans
Business
1 answer:
leonid [27]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The effective purchasing purchasing power of the initial loan of $6,200,000 when the firm repays is  $3,444,444  

If the original purchasing power of the $6,200,000 is to be maintained the firm must repay $ 11,160,000

Explanation:

In computing the figures above, I adhered strictly to the hints given in the question the purchasing of the original should be calculated by dividing the original amount by 1 plus cumulative inflation rate of 80% and that the amount should be multiplied by 1 plus cumulative inflation rate to arrive the amount needed as repayment to maintain the purchasing of the initial loan amount.

Find attached for detailed computations

Download xlsx
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Eva, the owner of eva's second time around wedding dresses, currently has five dresses to be altered, shown in the order in whic
AlladinOne [14]
The correct answer is 2.2 hours.

I<span>f Eva uses the earliest due date priority rule, the order of the dresses will be as follows: W (1 hour processing time, 1 hour due); Y (2 hrs processing time, 3 hrs due); V (3 hrs processing time, 5 hrs due); Z (5 hrs processing time, 7 hrs due); X (4 hrs processing time, 9 hrs due).</span> 

It's easier to do the next step using real numbers. For example, if it's 11am now and W is due in 1 hour, then W is due at noon. If Y is due in 3 hours, then Y is due at 2pm, etc. Then, you need to use the processing time to see how long it will take to make the dresses. For example, since W takes one hour to process, it will be done by noon, its due date. 

This means that W and Y will be altered on time, V will be 1 hour late, Z will be 4 hours late, and X will be 6 hours late. To find the average tardiness, add these extra hours (1+4+6) = 11, and divide by the total number of dresses (even the ones that weren't late) 5: 11/5 = 2.2 hours.
8 0
3 years ago
Given that they often competen t powerful companies, it is imperative that entrepreneurs:
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

Use strong judicial tools as patents and copyrights. Be flexible to enter the market. Understand that is more expensive to acquire a new client that to maintainn and excisting one.

Explanation:

The powerfull companies can make a product or service look bad (sabotage) or can change its prices to eliminate possible competitors from the market, they also have a huge share of the market so there are not many avilable new clients to gain.

3 0
3 years ago
Diz Co. is a U.S.-based MNC with net cash inflows of euros and net cash inflows of Swiss francs. These two currencies are highly
VikaD [51]

Answer:

Yanta Co. has a higher exposure to exchange rate risk than Diz Co.

The reason is that Yanta Co. does not have net inflows of euros.  Instead, its euro transactions yield net outflows.

It will always be in need of euros to settle its foreign debts or obligations, unlike Diz Co. with foreign assets.

Explanation:

a) Data and Analysis:

Diz Co. has net cash inflows of euros and net cash inflows of swiss francs

Yanta Co. has net cash outflows of euros and net cash inflows of swiss francs

b) Exposure to exchange rate risk or currency risk is the financial risk arising from fluctuations in the value of the US dollars against the Euro or Swiss Francs in which Diz Co. has some foreign assets while Yanta Co. has foreign obligations.

5 0
3 years ago
9. Should all poetry, music or art be beautiful? Explain.
Leviafan [203]
This question is mainly about YOUR opinion. Many will say that it will, but some will say it shouldn't. This is based entirely on your opinion. 
8 0
3 years ago
Tiggie’s Dog Toys, Inc. reported a debt-to-equity ratio of 1.75 times at the end of 2018. If the firm’s total assets at year-end
il63 [147K]

Answer:

Total debt is $15.91million

Total equity is 9.09miliion

Explanation:

Debt-to-equity ratio relates to how a firm is financing its operations through debt versus shareholders' equity(owners' fund)

The formula is: Total debt/total equity

Debt-to-equity ratio = 1.75times

Total assets =$25 million

We know the Equity = Asset - liability(debt)

We can rewrite the equation as:

Debt-to-equity ratio = Total debt/asset - debt

Let's represent debt as 'y'

1.75 = y/$25million - y

y = 1.75($25million - y)

y = $43.75 - 1.75y

Collect the like terms

y + 1.75y = $43.75million

2.75y = $43.75million

y = $43.75million/2.75

y = $15.91million

Therefore, total debt is $15.91million

Using the same formula: Total debt/total equity

Lets represent equity with z

1.75 = $15.91million/z

z = 15.91million/1.75

z = 9.09miliion

Therefore total equity is 9.09miliion

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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