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Oksi-84 [34.3K]
3 years ago
15

You are valuing a company that is projected to generate a free cash flow of $10 million next year, growing at a stable 3.0% rate

in perpetuity thereafter. The company has $22 million of debt and $8.5 million of cash. Cost of capital is 10.0%. There are 50 million shares outstanding. How much is each share worth according to your valuation analysis
Business
1 answer:
Mnenie [13.5K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$2.67 per share

Explanation:

To start with,we calculate the present worth of the company using the below formula:

present worth of the company=free cash flow*(1+g)/r-g

g is the growth rate of the free cash flow which is 3.0%

r is the cost of capital of 10%

present worth=$10 million*(1+3%)/10%-3%

                     =10.3/7%

                     =$ 147.14  million

However ,the value of total equity is computed thus:

equity=present worth+cash-debt

cash is $8.5 million

debt is $22 million

equity=$ 147.14  +$8.5-$22

equity=$133.64 million

value of each share=equity value /number of shares

number of shares is 50 million

value of each=$133.64 million/50 million=$2.67 per share

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Both Bond Bill and Bond Ted have 10.4 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Bill has 5 ye
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Answer:

Ans,

a) If interest rates suddenly rise by 3 percent, Bill´s bond would drop by -20.02%  and Ted´s bond would go down by -36.07%

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b) If rates were to suddenly fall by 3 percent, Bill´s bond would rise by 26.79%

and Ted´s bond would rise too by 86.47%

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Explanation:

Hi, first let´s go ahead and establish the stable scenario, for that we are going to use the information of the problem but we need to add the discount rate of the bond or yield, which is the missing information. All this so this concept can be explained in a better way, so for this example we´ll say that the yield of both bonds is 10% compounded semi-annually, the same units as the coupon. Now we have to use the following formula.

Price=\frac{Coupon((1+Yield)^{n}-1) }{Yield(1+Yield)^{n} } +\frac{FaceValue}{(1+Yield)^{n} }

Where:

Coupon = (%Coupon/2)*FaceValue= (0.104/2)*1,000=52

Yield = we are going to assume 10% annual, that is 5% semi-annual

n = Payment periods (For Bill n=5*2=10, for Ted, n=22*2=44)

So, let´s see what is the price of each bond if the yield was 10% annual compounded semi-annually.

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.05)^{10}-1) }{0.05(1+0.05)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.05)^{10} } =1,015.44

In Ted´s case, that is:

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.05)^{44}-1) }{0.05(1+0.05)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.05)^{44} } = 1,035.33

Now, if the interest rate (Yield) suddenly goes up by 3%, this is what happens to Bill´s Bond

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.08)^{10}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.08)^{10} } = 812.12

If yield goes down by 3%, this is the new price of Bill´s bond.

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.02)^{10}-1) }{0.02(1+0.02)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.02)^{10} } =  1,287.44

Now, in the case of Ted, this is what happens to the price if the yield goes up.

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.08)^{44}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.08)^{44} } =  661.84

If it goes down by 3%, this would be the price for Ted´s bond.

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.02)^{44}-1) }{0.02(1+0.02)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.02)^{44} } =   1,930.56

Now, in percentage, what we need to use is the following formula.

Change=\frac{(VariationValue-BaseValue)}{BaseValue} x100

For example, in the case of Bill´s bond, which yield went up by 3%, this is what we should do.

Change=\frac{(812.12-1,015.44)}{1,015.44} x100=-20.02Percent

So, the price variation is -20.02% if the yield rises by 3%.

This are the results of the prices and calculations for you to answer this question. Best of luck.

                         Bill        Ted                       % (Bill)       %(Ted)

Base Price     $1,015.44    $1,035.33    

(+) 3% Yield  $812.12          $661.84      -20.02%          -36.07%

(-) 3% Yield  $1,287.44     $1,930.56       26.79%            86.47%

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