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IRINA_888 [86]
3 years ago
10

A model ship is built to a scale of 1 cm: 4 m. The length of the model is 40 cm. What is the length of the actual ship? a. 160 m

c. 40 m b. 50 m d. 15 m Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Mathematics
1 answer:
scoundrel [369]3 years ago
5 0
A. 160m. 

You can get this answer by multiplying the scale by the length of the model
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BIG POINTS UP FOR GRABS!!!
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

40/3; 13.3333333333333

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of the cone is:

(1/3)(pi)(r^2)(h) =

(1/3)(pi)(10^2)(10) =

1000pi/3

The volume of the cylinder is:

(pi)(r^2)(h) =

(pi)(5^2)(h) =

25pi(h) = 1000pi/3 -->

pi(h) = 40pi/3 -->

h = 40/3

6 0
3 years ago
Which subset of real numbers does not contain the number 1?
Leni [432]

Answer:

I think the answer might be c or b.I hope this helps

5 0
3 years ago
A university found that 20% of its students withdraw without completing the introductory statistics course. Assume that 20 stude
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

a) P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369  

And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

b) P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

c) P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369

P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

d) E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Part a

We want this probability:

P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369  

And adding we got:

P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061

Part b

We want this probability:

P(X=4)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182  

Part c

We want this probability:

P(X>3)

We can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]

P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115  

P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576  

P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369

P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

And replacing we got:

P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886

Part d

The expected value is given by:

E(X) = np

And replacing we got:

E(X) = 20*0.2= 4

3 0
3 years ago
The smiths bought an apartment for $75,000. assuming that the value of the apartment will appreciate at most 4% a year, how many
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

1st year is $75,000 * 0.04 = $3,000 $75,000+$3,000=$78,000

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Im doing decimals greatest to least and i need help with number 12 and 13
erma4kov [3.2K]

(I know there isnt any real problem here to solve, but heres a tip on how to solve greatest to least with decimal problems)

1. Just because a number looks big, doesn't mean it is big

Example: 1.00000000000001 < 1.1

just look at the numbers ^ and dont just hastily read it over assuming that 1.1 is smaller because it "has less digits"

2. Negative numbers are... opposite. and they are less than positive numbers

-3.4 > -4.1

Why is this? Well, if you look on a line, with the point 0 in the middle, you can see that -3.4 is not as far away from 0 as -4.1 is. So the idea is to apply opposite logic for negative numbers

I hope these tips helped!! :D

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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