Add 5x + 5 and that is the bottom of it and the top stays 1
To round to the nearest hundredth is 42.66
<u>Answer:</u>
If PQ=RS then PQ and RS have the same length. Hence option D is correct
<u>Solution:</u>
Given that, pq = rs
And, we have to find which of the given options are true.
<u><em>a) pq and rs form a straight angle
</em></u>
We can’t decide the angle in between pq and rs just by the statement pq = rs.
So this statement is false.
<u><em>b) pq and rs form a zero angle.
</em></u>
We can’t decide the angle in between pq and rs just by the statement pq = rs.
So this statement is false.
<u><em>c) pq and rs are same segment.
</em></u>
If two things equal then there is no condition that both represents a single item.
So this statement is false.
<u><em>d) pq and rs have the same length
</em></u>
As given that pq = rs, we can say that they will have the same length
Hence, option d is true.
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
A and B are right C is incenter D is totally wrong hope this helps god bless
