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liberstina [14]
3 years ago
9

Under the aging of a company's accounts receivable, the uncollectible accounts are estimated to be $26,000. If the unadjusted ba

lance for the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $9,000 debit, what is the amount of bad debts expense for the year
Business
1 answer:
Mrrafil [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The amount of bad debt expense for the year is $35,000

Explanation:

Under the aging method, it refers to the method used for estimating the  accounts receivable amount  which is not yet collected or received by the company.

In this method, the estimated amount which will not be received or collected would be credited in the account Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

So, in this case, the bad debt expense for the year is computed as:

Bad debt expense = Uncollectible accounts + Unadjusted balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

Bad debt expense = $26,000 + $9,000

Bad debt expense = $35,000

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Mitchell Corporation bought equipment on January 1, 2017, and depreciates it using the double declining-balance-method of deprec
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

Book value= $206,400

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The equipment cost $300,000 and had an expected salvage value of $40,000.

First, we need to calculate the accumulated depreciation:

Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]

Year 1= 2*[(300,000 - 40,000)/10]= 52,000

Year 2= 2*[(260,000 - 52,000)/10]= 41,600

Book value= purchase price - accumulated depreciation

Book value= 300,000 - 93,600= $206,400

3 0
3 years ago
Western company begins the year with $50,000 of inventory on hand. During 2018, western purchases additional inventory for $100,
slava [35]

Answer:

Debit cost of goods sold $40,000

Explanation:

As with the details of inventory we have:

Opening value of inventory = $50,000

Purchases = $100,000

Thus, total inventory = $150,000

On the closing date we have the balance of inventory in hand = $110,000

Therefore, cost of goods sold = Total inventory - Closing

= $150,000 - $110,000 = $40,000

Cost of goods sold is an expense, and shall be debited.

8 0
3 years ago
Rachel wants to display jewelry in her store window in a way that will attract customers. She wants the display to complement an
Greeley [361]
Use a light colored background





hope that helps!
7 0
4 years ago
Miguel Corporation, a foreign subsidiary of a U.S. parent company, has one asset (Land) and no liabilities. The functional curre
user100 [1]

Answer:

All the 4 statements are correct.

Explanation:

The International Accounting Standard on Currency changes says that the all the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary must be reported at market value of the asset both at the end of the year and at the time of sale of asset & payment of liability. So this means that the statement a and d are correct statements because the translation gain or loss is reported by using the spot rate which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency. Similarly, the statement b and c are correct because at the time of sale of subsidiary assets we are actually recognizing the remeasurement gain or loss by using the spot rate, which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency.

5 0
3 years ago
With the federal funds rate near zero and the economy still​ struggling, the Fed began buying​ 10-year Treasury notes and certai
Korolek [52]

Answer:

The answer is: Quantitative easing

Explanation:

Quantitative easing is a type of monetary policy in which the central bank purchases predetermined quantity or amount of government securities or other financial assets to increase the supply of money, encourage lending and investment and inject liquidity into the economy. It is a unconventional monetary policy which is used when the  standard expansionary monetary policy is ineffective and during low or negative inflation.

<u>Therefore, the given policy is known as </u><u>Quantitative easing.</u>

8 0
3 years ago
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