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yan [13]
3 years ago
10

The risk-free rate is 4.2%, and the expected return on the market is 10%. A publicly-traded bond promises to return 8%. The expe

cted return on the bond investment is 5.5%. What is the bond's implied beta?
a) 0.45
b) 0.22
c) 0.73
d) 1.38
Business
1 answer:
AnnZ [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: the bond's implied beta= 0.22-b

Explanation:

According to Capital Asset Pricing Model CAPM, we have that  

Expected return =Rf + β(Rm - Rf)

Rm is expected return on market

β= beta of bond

Rf=risk free return

therefore

Expected return =Rf + β(Rm - Rf)

5.5 = 4.2 +  β(10-4.2)

5.5=4.2+ β5.8

5.5-4.2= β5.8

1.3=β5.8

β= 1.3/5.8=0.22

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An investor recently purchased a corporate bond that yields 9%. The investor is in the 36% combined federal and state tax bracke
kifflom [539]

Answer:

The bonds after tax yield is given as Pre tax yield X (1-tax rate)

After Tax Yield = 9% X (1-0.36) = 9%X0.64=5.76%

Answer: 5.76%

Explanation:

The after-tax yield of any financial instrument such as a bond or even stock dividends is the effective yield after the applicable taxes have been paid. Higher the tax rate, lesser is the after-tax yield for the investor.

To calculate your after-tax yield, you need to know both the rate of return on your investment and the tax rate that applies to those profits. First, convert your tax rate that applies to the earnings to a decimal by dividing by 100. Second, subtract the result from 1 to calculate the portion of your earnings that you get to keep after you pay taxes on them. Third, multiply the result by the rate of return on the investment to calculate your after-tax yield.

For example, say that you want to calculate the after-tax rate of return on your certificate of deposit. If your rate of return is 3 percent and the tax rate applied to that interest is 24 percent, start by dividing 24 percent by 100 to get 0.24. Second, subtract 0.24 from 1 to get 0.76 – the portion that you get to keep after accounting for taxes. Finally, multiply 0.76 by your overall rate of return of 3 percent to find your after-tax yield is 2.28 percent.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Farris Corporation, which has only one product, has provided the following data concerning its most recent month of operations:
noname [10]

Answer:

The net operating income for the month under variable costing is $11,550

Explanation:

In order to calculate The net operating income for the month under variable costing for Farron Corporation we would have to make the following calculations:

According to the given data:

i) Direct Material=$32  

ii) Direct labor=$74  

iii) Variable manufacturing overhead= $20  

Hence, Variable costing unit product cost (i + ii + iii)=  $126  

A) Sales ($168 per unit * 9250 units sold)=$1,554,000

B) Less variable expenses:  

Variable cost of goods sold  

($126 per unit * 9250 units sold)=$1,165,500  

Variable selling and administrative  

($24 per unit × 9250 units) $222,000 $1,387,500

C) Contribution margin (A – B)=$166,500

D) Less : fixed expenses  

Fixed manufacturing overhead= $144,750  

Fixed selling and administrative $10,200 $154,950

E) Net operating Income ( C-D)=$11,550

The net operating income for the month under variable costing is $11,550

4 0
3 years ago
A company’s retained earnings increased $375,000 last year and its assets increased $973,000. The company declared a $79,000 cas
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

C. $454,000.

Explanation:

We know that

The ending balance of retained earnings = Opening balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid

$375,000 = $0 + net income - $79,000

So, the net income would be

= $375,000 + $79,000

= $454,000

The ending balance of retained earnings - Opening balance of retained earnings is also known as increase in retained earning

6 0
3 years ago
A buyer agrees to purchase real property by making monthly payments to the seller and then receiving a deed at a later point in
slamgirl [31]

A buyer agrees to purchase real property by making monthly payments to the seller and then receiving a deed at a later point in time. such an agreement is known as a/an purchase-money mortgage.

What is purchase-money mortgage?

A purchase-money mortgage is a mortgage that the seller of home issues to the borrower as part of the sale of the property. This is typically done in circumstances where the buyer is unable to qualify for a mortgage through conventional banking channels. It is also known as seller financing or owner financing. In circumstances when the buyer is taking over, the seller's mortgage, and seller financing makes up the difference between the mortgage's outstanding balance and the property's sales price, a purchase-money mortgage may be employed.

What is one of the disadvantages of the purchase money mortgage?

One drawback is that you are still, and will continue to be, the home's legal owner. In the event that those buyers turn out to be dishonest, you can be left with damaged properties. Another drawback is that it could be challenging to evict or foreclose on a buyer who defaults on a loan.

Learn more about purchase-money mortgage: brainly.com/question/20711780

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
A decline in the Index of Supplier Deliveries is typically an indicator of a future _____ in economic production, and a narrowin
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

D. slowdown; slowdown

Explanation:

Based on the scenario been described in the question, a decline in the index of supplier deliveries will definitely slowdown economic production because it will lead to delay in delivery and also it is an indicator that future production will be slow. Also, the narrowing of the interest rate spread between 10years treasury note the three months bill is clearly an indicator that future economic production will be slow

4 0
3 years ago
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