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kap26 [50]
3 years ago
13

nder the general transfer pricing rule with excess capacity, the opportunity cost would be equal: Multiple Choice zero. the dire

ct expenses incurred in producing the goods. the total difference in the cost of production between two divisions. the contribution margin forgone from the lost external sale. the summation of variable cost plus fixed cost.
Business
2 answers:
choli [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

zero

Explanation:

When there is an excess capacity available, the opportunity cost will be zero, company can use this capacity to make the potential benefit from an alternative. Transfer pricing is the price charged to a subsidiary division of a company. This price can also be charged by the subsidiary to the parent company. Some companies use this to manage the tax matters. It may also applicable to the transfer of assets of the companies.

Thepotemich [5.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

ZERO.

Explanation:

A transfer price normally is used to determine the cost to charge another division, subsidiary, or holding company for services rendered. It is said that transfer prices are priced based on the going market price for that good or service. Transfer pricing can also be applied to intellectual property such as research, patents, and royalties.

However, companies at times can also use (or misuse) this practice by altering their taxable income, thus reducing their overall taxes. The transfer pricing mechanism is a way that companies can shift tax liabilities to low-cost tax jurisdictions.

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Sunbird Theatre Inc. owns and operates movie theaters throughout Florida and Georgia. Sunbird Theatre Inc. has declared the foll
bulgar [2K]

Answer:

See the explanation below.

Explanation:

1. Calculation of total dividend for six years (2011 to 2016)

Total dividend = 2011  dividend + 2012  dividend + 2013  dividend + 2014  dividend + 2015  dividend + 2016  dividend

Total dividend = $20,000 + $36,000 + $70,000 + $90,000 + $102,000  + $150,000  

Total dividend = $468,000  

2. Calculation of per-share dividends declared on each class of stock for each of the six years

Note that preferred stock holders are entitled to dividend first before the common stock holders. It is what remains after paying the preferred shareholders that the common shareholders get. Therefore, the calculation is done as follows:

2011:

Preferred dividend per share = Preferred dividend rate × Preferred stock price

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Actual dividend declared = $20,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $20,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.20

Preferred dividend arrears (Cumulative) = $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000

Preferred dividend per share arrears (Cumulative)  = $10,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.10

Since preferred stock holders are entitled to dividend first before the common stock holders and the dividend declared is lower than the dividend payable to the preferred shareholders, the common stockholders will receive zero dividend in 2011.

Also, since it is stated in the question that the preferred 1% stock is cumulative

2012:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Total dividend declared = $36,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

To pay preferred dividend in arrears = $36,000 - $30,000 = $6,000

Preferred dividend arrears per share paid = $6,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.06

Balance of preferred dividend arrears = $10,000 - $6,000 = $4,000

Balance of preferred dividend per share arrears  = $4,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.04.

Total preferred dividend paid in 2012 = $36,000

Preferred dividend per share paid in 2012 = $36,000 ÷ 100,000 = 0.36

Again for the same reason as stated above, the common stockholders will also receive zero dividend in 2012.

2013:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Expected total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Total dividend declared = $70,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

To pay preferred dividend arrears = $4,000

Preferred dividend arrears per share paid = $4,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.04

Common stock dividend = $70,000 - $34,000 = $36,000

Common stock dividend per share = $36,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.09.

2014:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $90,000

Common stock dividend = $90,000 - $30,000 = $60,000

Common stock dividend per share = $60,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.15.

2014:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $102,000

Common stock dividend = $102,000 - $30,000 = $72,000

Common stock dividend per share = $72,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.18.

2015:

Expected preferred dividend per share = 1% × $30 = 0.30 per share

Expected total preferred dividend = Expected preferred dividend per share × Number proffered share

Actual total preferred dividend = $0.30 × 100,000 = $30,000

Preferred dividend declared per share = $30,000 ÷ 100,000 = $0.30

Total dividend declared = $150,000

Common stock dividend = $150,000 - $30,000 = $130,000

Common stock dividend per share = $130,000 ÷ 400,000 = $0.33.

5 0
3 years ago
Compensation for top executives (e.g., CEOs and CFOs) has become more variable over time. For example, recent data show that in
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

Because :- CEOs & CFOs can have significant impacts throughout the entire business, & the type of reward plan will encourage the CFOs to work in a more rational manner.

Explanation:

CEOs & CFOs are a part of upper level of management of an organisation. Effectiveness & Efficiency of their managerial skills is very crucial to management of company. So, to encourage proper management of companies by senior managers, they can be incentivised by mix of fixed & variable salary structure. The variable component of salary as per company performance under CEO or CFO, positively motivates them to improvise their performance, which subsequently improves company performance.

3 0
3 years ago
Engberg Company installs lawn sod in home yards. The company’s most recent monthly contribution format income statement follows:
GaryK [48]

Answer:

See answer below

Explanation:

1. Degree of operating leverage

Selling price $126,000

Variable cost $50,400

Contribution margin $75,600

Fixed cost $23,000

Net operating income $52,600

Degree of operating leverage = Contribution margin / operating income = $75,600 / $52,600

= 1.44

8 0
3 years ago
Assume there are six companies in a certain industry. Four companies have $10 sales apiece, while two companies have $5 sales ea
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

An industry consists of six firms with annual sales of $300, $500, $400, $700, $600, and $600, respectively. a. What is the industry's four firm concentration ratio? b. What is the industry's Herfindahl-Hirschman index? c. Is this industry highly concentrated? Explain.

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Incline Company generated $4,900,000 in revenue selling 4,025 units of its only product. Each unit has a contribution margin of
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

23%

Explanation:

The computation of the contribution margin ratio is shown below:-

Selling price per unit = $4,900,000 ÷ 4,025 units

= 1217.39

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin ÷ Selling price

= $280 ÷ 1217.39

= 23%

Therefore for computing the contribution margin ratio we simply divide selling price by contribution margin.

6 0
2 years ago
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