Cultural blocks are a hard aspect to protect against, when they occur, but can be avoided. Simply, like all other block, ask a series of questions to aid in the simple understanding of how other people will see the design, or whatever. Never think that what you think is always the only necessary vetting device.
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Answer:
-5.14 for sam
-18.01% for dave
Explanation:
We first calculate for Sam
R = 7.3%
We have 2% increase
= 9.3%
We calculate for present value of coupon and present value at maturity using the formula for present value in the attachment
To get C
1000 x 0.073/2
= 36.5
time= 3 years x 2 times payment = 6
Ytm = rate = 9.3%/2 = 0.0465
Putting values into the formula
36.5[1-(1+0.0465)^-6/0.0465]
= 36.5(1-0.7613/0.0465)
36.5(0.2385/0.0465)
= 36.5 x 5.129
Present value of coupon = 187.20
We solve for maturity
M = 1000
T = 6 months
R = 0.0465
1000/(1+0.0465)⁶
= 1000/1.3135
Present value = 761.32
We add up the value of present value at maturity and that at coupon
761.32 + 187.20
= $948.52
Change in % = 948.52/1000 - 1
= -0.05148
= -5.14 for sam
We calculate for Dave
He has 20 years and payment is two times yearly
= 20x2 = 40
36.5 [1-(1+0.0465)^-40/0.0465]
Present value = 36.5 x 18.014
= 657.511
At maturity,
Present value = 1000/(1+0.0465)⁴⁰
= 1000/6.1598
= 162.34
We add up these present values
= 657.511+162.34 = $819.851
Change = 819.851/1000 -1
= -0.1801
= -18.01%
Answer:
Current value from operations is $534.71 million.
Explanation:
The value from operations can be calculated by discounting back the free cash flow of the firm. The first three year's FCF will be discounted back using the WACC and when the growth rate o FCF becomes constant after Year 3, the terminal value will be calculated and discounted back too.
The current value from operations = FCF1 / (1+WACC) + FCF2 / (1+WACC)² + FCF3 / (1+WACC)³ + [FCF3 * (1+g) / WACC - g] / (1+WACC)³
Current value from operations = 20 / (1+0.1) + 25 / (1+0.1)² + 30 / (1+0.1)³ + [30 * (1+0.05) / (0.1 - 0.05)] / (1+0.1)³
Current value from operations = $534.71 million
Answer:
The c orrect answer is A.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual deposit= 1,410
Annual interest rate= 5%
Number of years= 8 years
To calculate the future value of her investment, we need to use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {1,410*[(1.05^8)-1]}/ 0.05
FV= $13,464.24