Answer:
The patient would receive 1.05mg of the drug weekly.
Step-by-step explanation:
First step: How many mcg of the drug would the patient receive daily?
The problem states that he takes three doses of 50-mcg a day. So
1 dose - 50mcg
3 doses - x mcg
x = 50*3
x = 150 mcg.
He takes 150mcg of the drug a day.
Second step: How many mcg of the drug would the patient receive weekly?
A week has 7 days. He takes 150mcg of the drug a day. So:
1 day - 150mcg
7 days - x mcg
x = 150*7
x = 1050mcg
He takes 1050mcg of the drug a week.
Final step: Conversion of 1050 mcg to mg
Each mg has 1000 mcg. How many mg are there in 1050 mcg? So
1mg - 1000 mcg
xmg - 1050mcg
1000x = 1050

x = 1.05mg
The patient would receive 1.05mg of the drug weekly.
Its Your option B.
i.e. 1.325 * 10 ^ 6
Given:
let h be the high quality bean
let c be the cheaper bean
h + c = 160
6h + 3.25c = 160*4.97
6h + 3.25c = 795.20
h = 160 - c
6(160 - c) + 3.25c = 795.20
960 - 6c + 3.25c = 795.20
-2.75c = 795.20 - 960
-2.75c = -164.80
c = -164.80 / -2.75
c = 59.92 or 60 lbs
h = 160 - c
h = 160 - 60
h = 100 lbs
Sarah should blend 60 lbs of cheap coffee bean and 100 lbs of high quality coffee bean.
Answer:
∠ADB≅∠ABC by the Alternate Interior Angles Theorem
∠CAD≅∠ACB by the Alternate Interior Angles Theorem
∠BAD and ∠ADV are supplementary by the Consecutive Interior Angle Theorem
∠ABC and ∠BCD are supplementary by the Consecutive Interior Angle Theorem