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GaryK [48]
3 years ago
7

The client at the HIV clinic has come in complaining of unintended weight loss with diarrhea lasting over the last month. How is

the wasting syndrome in clients with AIDS defined
Business
1 answer:
AVprozaik [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is Loss of 10% of usual weight.

Explanation:

The attrition syndrome associated with HIV infection is characterized by:

  1. Loss of involuntary body weight and greater than 10% compared to the normal reference weight.
  2. Diarrhea or chronic weakness with fever, for a period greater than 30 days.
  3. Absence of any infection or condition other than HIV: cancer, tuberculosis, cryptosporidiasis and other enteritis that could explain these symptoms.
  4. In practice, any progressive and involuntary weight loss of this magnitude is considered a syndrome of attrition and translates into the development of a significant nutritional deficit that leads to significant physical and psychological deterioration.

The attrition syndrome may be a consequence of HIV infection itself. Thus, those patients presenting with symptoms of wear and tear should use all available options of antiretroviral therapy, which may remit symptoms and not require other specific interventions. It is also associated with opportunistic HIV infections and cancers. Opportunistic infections that cause diarrhea can cause attrition syndrome. This can cause greater immunodeficiency in affected people and predispose them to certain diarrheal opportunistic infections, which would be reinforced by a vicious cycle.

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World Grocer sells high-quality products and grocery items that are unique to its highly populated area; in addition, it offers
grigory [225]

Answer:

focused-differentiation

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Global Technology’s capital structure is as follows: Debt 35 % Preferred stock 15 Common equity 50 The aftertax cost of debt is
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

weighted average cost of capital  = 13.10%

Explanation:

given data

Debt = 35%

Preferred stock = 15

Common equity = 50

cost of debt = 9 percent

cost of preferred stock = 13 percent

cost of common equity = 16 percent

to find out

Weighted Average cost of capital

solution

we get here weighted cost of each source of capital  that is

Weighted Cost  of Debt  = 0.35 * 9%  =  3.15 %        ....................1

Weighted Cost  of Preferred Stock = 0.15 * 13% = 1.95%     .........2

Weighted Cost  of Common Stock = 0.50 * 16% = 8 %    ..............3

so

so weighted average cost of capital  will be

weighted average cost of capital  = 3.15 % + 1.95% + 8 %

weighted average cost of capital  = 13.10%

8 0
3 years ago
Assume the company is considering investing in a new machine that will increase its fixed costs by $42,500 per year and decrease
Semenov [28]

Answer:

The company should purchase the machine.

Explanation:

Note: The complete question is attached below

Forecasted contribution margin income statement

For the Year Ended December 31

Particulars                                       Amount$

Sales                                                2,440,000

Variable cost(10,000*185(195-10))  <u>1,850,000</u>

Contribution margin                        590,000

Fixed cost (327,600+42,500)         <u>370,100</u>

Income                                              <u>$219,900</u>

Because the income increase by $57,500 due to the pruchase, the company should purchase the machine

8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following nouns is properly capitalized?
ehidna [41]
A. Congress
When referring to the Senate and the House of Representatives, it should be capitalized. 
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Part E14 is used by M Corporation to make one of its products. A total of 22,000 units of this part are produced and used every
murzikaleks [220]

Answer:

(29,800)

Explanation:

The computation of the financial advantage or disadvantage is shown below:

As we know that

Financial disadvantage = Cost of making - Cost of buying

where,

Cost of making is

= [(Direct material per unit + direct labor per unit + variable manufacturing overhead per unit) × units produced] + additional segment margin

= [($4.7 + $9.30 + $9.80 + $5.20) × 22,000 units] + $34,000

= ($29 × 22,000 units ) + $34,000

= $672,000

And, the Cost of buying is

= Units produced × offered price

= 22,000 units × $31.90

= $701,800

So,

Financial disadvantage is

= Cost of making - Cost of buying

= $672,000 - $701,800

= (29,800)

6 0
3 years ago
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